BMAT 2007-S1

	Your Score	Average of all Users	Percentile
BMAT 2007 S1

Under ideal conditions, a tree, newly planted from seed, grows 1 m in its first year. In each subsequent year it grows 10 % of the difference between its height at the beginning of the year and its theoretical maximum height.

1. If a given tree’s theoretical maximum height is 30 m, how big will it be (under ideal conditions), to the nearest 10 cm after 3 years growth?

A. 5.9 m

B. 6.5 m

C. 7.0 m

D. 8.9 m

E. 9.0 m

0

Explanation

The correct answer is B.

1+0.10(30-1)+0.10(30-0.10(30-1))

=1+0.10(29)+0.10(30-0.10(29))

=1+2.9+0.10(30-2.9)

=3.9+0.10(27.1)

=3.9+2.71

=6.61m

Post Comment

‘WMD’ (weapons of mass destruction) is a recently invented term and one that is not well defined. It includes everything from nuclear warheads to chemical and biological weapons, and is supposed to fill us with special dread. But any idea that ‘WMD’ are ____________ is easily disproved. In 1945 fewer than 200,000 people were killed, albeit in a frightful way, by the atomic bombs dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki; but this was at the end of a war in which well over a million Germans and Japanese had already been incinerated or asphyxiated by ‘conventional’ bombing. It would have been little consolation to those dying in the air raids on Hamburg and Tokyo to know that there had been nothing ‘mass-destructive’ about their deaths.

2. A phrase has been omitted from the above passage. Which one of the following phrases most logically completes the argument?

A. Morally unacceptable

B. A serious threat

C. Uniquely dangerous

D. Necessarily devastating

0

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

The phrase ‘uniquely dangerous’ is the most suitable option here. The nature of the passage portrays WMD to be very dangerous as they were previously used to kill people at Hiroshima and Nagasaki. The use of the phrase ‘supposed to fill us with special dread,’ before the omitted phrase, also alludes to these weapons being dangerous. This justifies the word ‘dangerous’ in the phrase. The word ‘uniquely’ is justified as the passage goes on to explain how WMD are not the only class of weapons that have caused great destruction. Therefore, WMD are not the only uniquely dangerous weapons available.

Post Comment

The table below shows the annual sales (in £) of the five sales representatives of a carpet company for two years. This shows a substantial rise in sales in the second of the two years.

Representative	2005	2006
Asquith	240000	300000
Burton	380000	420000
Coleridge	350000	400000
Darwin	150000	250000
Elgar	580000	630000
Total	1700000	2000000

3. Which of the following pie charts represents the percentage contribution of each of the representatives to the increase in sales?

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

0

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

Asquith 300000-240000=60000,

Burton 420000-380000=40000,

Coleridge 400000-350000=50000,

Darwin 250000-150000=100000,

Elgar 630000-580000=50000.

Therefore the representative contributions to the increase in sales smallest to largest are: Burton, Coleridge and Elgar (so would cover the same area of the pie chart), Asquith and Darwin. This is shown by C.

Post Comment

In the UK the accident rate for male drivers aged under 25 is much higher than for any other group. More than 1000 young male drivers, many of whom had passed their driving test at the first attempt, were killed or seriously injured last year. To reduce this loss of young life, the driving test should require a much higher level of mastery of driving skills than it does at present. In this way, failure at the first attempt would become the acknowledged norm, and drivers would not be allowed on the roads unsupervised until they had more driving experience.

1. Many of the young male drivers involved in serious accidents are highly skilled in driving techniques.

2. Serious accidents are more likely to occur when young drivers are accompanied by a number of young passengers.

3. Accident rates are lower in countries where young drivers are required to have 100 hours of driving experience before taking the test.

4. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the above argument?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 2

E. 1 and 3

F. 2 and 3

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Explanation

The correct answer is A.

The passage concludes that young male drivers should require a ‘much higher level of mastery of driving skills than it does at present,’ in order to reduce the accident rate for male drivers under the age of 25. Therefore, the argument assumes that young drivers are considered to not have the sufficient skills or experience to avoid car accidents. Therefore, the argument is weakened by statement 1 as it states that if many young male drivers are highly skilled in their driving techniques that the cause of accidents is due to another reason, therefore weakening the conclusion.

Statement 2 is incorrect because there is no mention how an increase in number of passengers accompanying the driver contributes to an increase in accidents.

Statement 3 is incorrect because this strengthens the main conclusion.

Post Comment

The table below shows average occupation rates for beds in English NHS hospitals in 2004-5.

5. Which sector has the highest percentage occupancy?

A. Acute

B. Geriatic

C. Mental illness

D. Learning disabilities

E. Maternity

0

Explanation

The correct answer is B.

Percentage occupancy= occupied beds/(occupied beds+available beds) x100.

These can be estimated by rounding to the nearest thousand beds:

Acute: 93/(93+110)=0.458

Geriatric: 24/(24+27)=0.471

mental illness: 28/(28+32)=0.467

learning disabilities: 4/(4+5)=0.444

Maternity: 6/(6+9)=0.400.

So the geriatric center has the highest percentage occupancy.

Post Comment

The best way to reverse the trend towards increasing violence amongst the young is to encourage more young men to take up boxing. Boxing is not primarily about aggression; it is about discipline and self-restraint. It also provides an activity to keep young men occupied during their leisure time. In every instance in which a boxing club has been set up in a high-crime area there has been a reduction in violent crime and drug use.

6. Which one of the following identifies a weakness in the above argument?

A. It assumes that boxers are never aggressive.

B. It ignores the possible effects on the crime rate of other leisure activities.

C. It assumes that most young men lack discipline and self-restraint.

D. It ignores the possibility that young men take up boxing because they enjoy violence.

0

Explanation

The correct answer is B.

The main conclusion of the passage is that boxing clubs in areas with high crime rates act by reducing the violent crime rate in that area. Therefore, it assumes that if there is a reduction in the crime rate, that it will be due to the boxing club rather than any other factor. Hence, statement B is correct because it states that the passage fails to consider the role of other leisure activities and its effect on the crime rate i.e. that say football as another leisure activity could be contributing to the reduction in crime rates in young men.

Statement A is incorrect because it is irrelevant to the main conclusion.

Statement C is also irrelevant because the conclusion considers the link between crime and boxing clubs, rather than considering how young men committing these crimes may lack discipline and self-restraint.

Statement D is incorrect because it does not act to weaken the main conclusion.

Post Comment

In an experiment, 6 bulbs were planted in a row. 3 produced red flowers and 3 produced yellow flowers.

7. If the bulbs were planted in a random order, what is the probability that the colours will alternate along the whole row?

A. 1/60

B. 1/48

C. 1/32

D. 1/20

E. 1/10

0

Explanation

The correct answer is E.

For each of the six positions, there are two possible flower colours, so the total number of arrangements possible is 2x2x2x2x2x2=64. There are two possible arrangements in which the flower colour alternates from one position to the next, one arrangement beginning with a red flower and the other beginning with a yellow flower. Hence the probability that the colours will alternate along the whole row is 2/64=1/32.

Post Comment

Many people think that if they – or ‘the experts’ – cannot explain something, it must therefore be truly paranormal. An amateur archaeologist declares that because he cannot figure out how the pyramids were built, they must have been constructed by aliens. Feats such as the bending of spoons, or telepathy, are often thought paranormal or mystical. But if they were explained people would respond, “Yes, of course” or “That’s obvious once you see it.” Fire-walking is a case in point. People speculate about the supernatural powers of fire-walkers over pain and heat, yet the simple explanation is that the conductivity of heat from the light and fluffy coals to the walker’s feet is very poor. As long as you don’t stand still, you will not get burned.

8. Which one of the following is an inference which is supported by the above passage?

A. There are no truly paranormal occurrences.

B. Everything that occurs has an explanation.

C. The lack of a simple explanation does not make an occurrence paranormal.

D. Feats such as spoon bending and telepathy do not really occur.

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Explanation

The correct answer is C.

Statement C is correct here because the first sentence starts by challenging that how previously when something could not be explained it therefore needed to be truly paranormal. It then goes on to provide evidence that explanations would make people realise that such feats are not necessarily paranormal.

Statement A & B are too bold to be correct here and are therefore incorrect.

Statement D is incorrect because there is no mention how the feats mentioned are true or not but merely mentioned as examples of things that are thought to be paranormal.

Post Comment

The tables below enable nutritional requirements to be calculated for cats who are receiving treatment in veterinary surgeries.

9. How much protein (to the nearest 0.1 g) does a 2 kg cat with sepsis but without hepatic or renal failure require?

A. 8.6 g

B. 11.2 g

C. 13.2 g

D. 14.0 g

E. 14.6 g

0

Explanation

The correct answer is E.

The cat’s basic energy requirement would be: (30×2)+70=130. So its maintenance energy requirement would be 130×1.6=208kcal/day. So its protein requirement would be 7x(208/100)=14.56g/day.

Post Comment

The tables below enable nutritional requirements to be calculated for cats who are receiving treatment in veterinary surgeries.

10. A 1 kg kitten has been injured in a road accident and is being treated post trauma. If it is being fed with the correct amount of product CCFR to give it the correct energy intake, how much protein is it receiving relative to the recommended level? (Answer to the nearest 0.1g)

A. 0.4 g too little

B. 0.7 g too little

C. 0.9 g too little

D. 1.3 g too little

E. 2.8 g too little

0

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

A 1kg kitten has a ber of 70×1^0.75=70. It has an mer of 70×1.3=91kcal/day. It has a protein requirement of 7×91/100=6.37g/day. For the correct energy intake, the kitten should be being fed 91/1=91ml/day of CCFR, which would have a protein content of 91×0.06=5.46g in total. This means the kitten will be getting 6.37-5.46=0.91g less protein than it requires.

Post Comment

The tables below enable nutritional requirements to be calculated for cats who are receiving treatment in veterinary surgeries.

11. Which is the most appropriate feed formula (i.e. giving the closest amounts of both energy and protein) for a cat suffering renal failure?

A. FCH

B. CCFR

C. ES

D. OHN

E. EMF

0

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

A cat suffering from renal failure requires 4g of protein per 100kcal. Multiplying the values of energy content and protein in step 4 by 100, we can see that the ES feed formula gives the exact proportions of energy and protein desired.

Post Comment

The tables below enable nutritional requirements to be calculated for cats who are receiving treatment in veterinary surgeries.

A feed containing 100 kcal has been mixed up to give the right amount of energy and protein for a cat in care. However, formula CCF was used by mistake instead of CCFR. It is decided that, rather than throwing it away, the CCF feed will be mixed with ES to give the same ratio of protein to energy as CCFR.

12. How much ES must be added to the 100 ml CCF mix?

A. 60 ml

B. 100 ml

C. 150 ml

D. 167 ml

E. 250 ml

0

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

CCFR’s ratio of energy to protein is 1ml:0.06g. 100ml of CCF contains 1×100=100kcal and 0.09×100=9g of protein. ES’s ratio of energy to protein is 1ml:0.04g. The ratio can be corrected by adding 150ml ES, containing 1.5×4=6g of protein, making a total of 9+6=15g of protein in 100+150=250ml, which has the desired ratio of 250ml:15g=100ml:6g

Post Comment

The table below shows the results of a survey into alcohol use in England in a single week in 2002. Those interviewed were asked to say how many days they had drunk alcohol in the previous week.

The bar chart below shows this data summarised as the percentage who had drunk on a certain number of days or more.

13. What is x?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

0

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

Looking at the ‘all ages’ column, if we total the percentage of people who had 5 or more drinking days we get 4+3+11=18%, which corresponds to the height of the bar for all ages on the graph. So x=5.

Post Comment

A survey of the behaviour of dogs in Vancouver over several months in 2001 revealed a surprising finding. On 27 February, the day before a major earthquake with an epicentre 240 kilometres south of the city, almost 50 % of the dogs were observed to be much more active and anxious than usual. The probability of this happening by chance was 1 in 1000, so it is likely that it was connected in some way with the earthquake. Suggested explanations have been that dogs were responding to electromagnetic changes or to the release of subterranean gases associated with earthquakes. But given what we know about dogs’ hearing abilities, the most likely explanation is that dogs can hear sounds from rocks scraping or breaking underground before an impending earthquake.

14. Which one of the following, if true, gives support to the explanation offered in the above passage?

A. Many dogs that had a hearing impairment did not show an increase in anxiety on 27 February 2001.

B. Seismic waves at very high frequencies are usually detectable only up to 100 metres from their source.

C. The observation and recording of the dogs’ behaviour was done by the dogs’ owners.

D. Monitoring of earthquake zones using acoustic detection systems has failed to find acoustic signals before an earthquake.

0

Explanation

The correct answer is A.

The passage concludes that ‘almost 50% of dogs were observed to be much more active and anxious than usual’ prior to a major earthquake on the 27th of February. It supports this by stating that such behaviour is due to a dog’s hearing abilities.

Statement A strengthens this argument as it states that dogs that had a hearing impairment on the 27th of February, were shown to be less anxious prior to the earthquake.

Post Comment

In an election for a school council there were three candidates. Ann received exactly one third of the votes cast, Paul received 116 votes and Elaine received half as many as Paul.

15. Who won, and by what margin?

A. Ann by 116 votes

B. Ann by 87 votes

C. Paul by 29 votes

D. Paul by 58 votes

E. Paul by 116 votes

0

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

Using the first letter of each of their names to represent the number of votes earned by each person, E=0.5P and P=116, E=0.5×116=58. As Ann received ⅓ of all the votes, E+P must equal ⅔ of all the votes. E+P=58+116=174. Therefore A=174/2=87. So Ann received 87 votes, Paul 116 and Elaine 58. Therefore Paul won, beating Ann by 116-87=29 votes.

Post Comment

Data from a Swedish census shows that at age 64 those who have a PhD are less likely to die within the next year than are those who have only a BA or a BSc. The census showed further evidence of the relationship between level of educational attainment and longevity, since those aged 64 with an MA (higher than a BA and lower than a PhD) were less likely to die within the next year than those with a BA and more likely to die within the next year than those with a PhD. So it’s clear that someone who is awarded a PhD in Sweden will live longer than they would have done if they had not studied for a higher degree.

16. Which one of the following identifies a flaw in the above argument?

A. It assumes that what is true for a group is true for each individual.

B. It assumes that people who are awarded PhDs will have a healthier lifestyle.

C. It assumes that what applies in Sweden will apply in other countries.

D. It assumes that in Sweden only the healthiest people are awarded PhDs.

0

Explanation

The correct answer is A.

Statement A is correct because the passage is only looking at a select group of people who have studied rather than those who have not studied at all. It is also fair to say that it has not taken into account everybody who studied a higher education degree at university and then studied their longevity. Therefore, it is fair to say that the flaw in the argument is that it is extrapolating information based off of a group of people and applying it generally to all individuals. This is summarised in statement A.

Statement B is incorrect because it is evidence to the conclusion of the passage rather than a flaw. It is fair to say that a healthier lifestyle goes hand in hand with longevity but this cannot be said for certain.

Statement C is incorrect because this Swedish study is applying the data to those who have completed degrees in Sweden rather than applying the study results to other countries.

Statement D is incorrect because the passage only states that people who have completed PhDs are more likely to live longer rather than the other way around.

Post Comment

It would not be surprising to discover that today’s smokers find it harder to give up than did their predecessors, since smokers are now inhaling more nicotine. Data supplied by tobacco companies reveals that the amount of nicotine inhaled by a typical smoker increased by 11 % per cigarette between 1998 and 2005. This is because the nicotine content of cigarettes has increased, no doubt because tobacco companies want their product to be more addictive.

1. Today’s cigarettes burn at the same rate as those of ten years ago, allowing the same number of puffs per cigarette.

2. The higher the nicotine content of a cigarette, the fewer the cigarettes smoked by a typical smoker.

3. Drugs which could partially block nicotine in the nervous system are currently being tested.

17. Which of the following, if true, weakens the above argument?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. 3 only

D. 1 and 2

E. 1 and 3

F. 2 and 3

0

Explanation

The correct answer is B.

The main conclusion of the passage states that tobacco companies have increased their nicotine content in their cigarettes in order to make their product more addictive. The assumption made here is that the higher the nicotine content of the cigarette, the more addictive the product and thus the greater the consumption. However, statement 2 weakens the argument (if considered to be true) because a higher content of nicotine would mean that fewer cigarettes would be smoked and thus decreasing consumption and weakening the conclusion that cigarette companies have increased nicotine content to increase the addictiveness of cigarettes.

Statement 1 is incorrect because there is no mention how the rate at which a cigarette is consumed, in terms of puffs, affects the addictiveness of the product.

Statement 3 is incorrect as it is irrelevant to the main conclusion.

Post Comment

Bob has £140 to spend on paving slabs for his patio garden. Paving slabs are 70 x 70 cm square and cost £2.80 each. He finds that, using whole slabs, he is only able to buy enough to lay an area which is twice as long as it is wide but will not cover the whole patio. He decides to leave the remainder as a rectangular flower bed down one side.

18. If his patio garden is 5 m wide, how wide is the flower bed?

A. 1.4 m

B. 1.5 m

C. 2.0 m

D. 3.5 m

E. 7.0 m

0

Explanation

The correct answer is B.

With £140, Bob can buy 140/2.80=50 paving slabs, which would cover an area of 70x70x50=245000cm^2 or 24.5m^2. If these cover an area which length is double that of its width, its dimensions must be 3.5x7m. So if the patio garden is 5m wide, the flower bed must have the remainder of the width of the patio not covered by the slabs: 5-3.5=1.5m

Post Comment

Two drivers take part in a race. The faster driver’s average lap time is 1 minute 6 seconds, and the slower driver’s 1 minute 10 seconds.

19. Assuming they drive at a constant speed and started together, how long would it take for the faster to lap the slower driver?

A. 18 minutes 9 seconds

B. 19 minutes 15 seconds

C. 20 minutes 25 seconds

D. 38 minutes 30 seconds

E. 40 minutes 50 seconds

0

Explanation

The correct answer is B.

We need to find the lowest common multiple of the two drivers’ lap times. Converting the times into seconds gives 66 seconds for the faster driver and 70 seconds for the slower driver. The lowest common multiple of these two numbers is 2310. This would be 2310/66=35 laps for the faster driver and 2310/70=33 laps for the slower driver. This means the faster driver is ahead by 35-33=2 laps after 2310 seconds. Assuming both drivers travel at a constant speed, the faster driver would first lap the slower driver at half of this time: 2310/2=1155 seconds, or 1155/60=19.25= 19 minutes and 15 seconds.

Post Comment

The information below is taken from two independent studies on the detection of prostate cancer. Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) is a measurement taken from a blood sample and Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is a physical examination. In the absence of further information, you should assume that there is no connection between the probability of a person having a false positive on one test, and their chance of a false positive on the other.

20. If DRE was used alone to diagnose prostate cancer, what would be the percentage of men screened positive?

A. 2.1%

B. 3.7%

C. 6.4%

D. 10.6 %

E. 12.2 %

0

Explanation

The correct answer is D.

Number of men screened positive= number of true positives+number of false positives.True positive: In every 1000 men screened the average number screened positive and with cancer was 21 men. False positive: In every 1000 men screened the average number screened positive but without cancer was 85 men. (21+85)/1000=106/1000=10.6%

Post Comment

The information below is taken from two independent studies on the detection of prostate cancer. Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) is a measurement taken from a blood sample and Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is a physical examination. In the absence of further information, you should assume that there is no connection between the probability of a person having a false positive on one test, and their chance of a false positive on the other.

21. If the samples of men involved in the study were representative of the general population, what would be the overall rate of confirmed prostate cancer in 50-70 year old men according to the data given in study 1?

A. 0.8%

B. 2.6%

C. 3.3%

D. 26%

E. 33%

0

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

All the following are according to study 1. 10 % of men aged 50-70 tested will have an abnormal PSA level. Of those with abnormal PSA levels, 26 % will subsequently be found to have cancer: 0.10×0.26=0.026. Of those with normal PSA levels, 0.8 % will later be found to have prostate cancer (false negatives): 0.90×0.008=0.0072. Overall rate of confirmed prostate cancer in 50-70 year old men: 0.026+0.0072=0.0332=3.32%. Be careful with decimal places here, as using 0.072 instead of 0.0072, for example, will give you a completely different answer.

Post Comment

The information below is taken from two independent studies on the detection of prostate cancer. Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) is a measurement taken from a blood sample and Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is a physical examination. In the absence of further information, you should assume that there is no connection between the probability of a person having a false positive on one test, and their chance of a false positive on the other.

A journalist, on the basis of the above scientific summaries, concludes that the PSA test is more reliable than the DRE test. If his conclusion is correct, the word ‘reliable’ can be defined in the following ways:

P: In the sense that PSA gives fewer false positives.

Q: In the sense that PSA gives fewer false negatives.

22. Which of the above is/are correct?

A. P and Q

B. P only

C. Q only

D. Neither P nor Q

0

Explanation

The correct answer is A.

For PSA, the rate of false positives is 0.10×0.74=0.074. For DRE, the rate of false positives is 85/1000=0.085. Therefore DRE has a higher rate of false positives.

For PSA, the rate of false negatives is 0.90×0.008=0.0072. For DRE, it is 16/1000=0.016. Therefore DRE also has a higher rate of false negatives.

Hence both statements P and Q are correct.

Post Comment

The information below is taken from two independent studies on the detection of prostate cancer. Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA) is a measurement taken from a blood sample and Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is a physical examination. In the absence of further information, you should assume that there is no connection between the probability of a person having a false positive on one test, and their chance of a false positive on the other.

23. Since neither test is 100 % decisive or accurate, the normal clinical procedure is to follow an abnormally high PSA test with a DRE. If 1000 men are screened, using this two stage process, on average how many will have false positive readings on both tests? (Answer to the nearest whole number)

A. 2

B. 6

C. 16

D. 59

E. 159

0

Explanation

The correct answer is B.

Men only have both tests if they first have a high PSA. So given that they have a high PSA, the probability of a man not having cancer is 0.74. For DRE, the rate of false positives is 85/1000=0.085. Therefore the probability of getting a false positive on both tests given that the PSA level was high is 0.74×0.085=0.0629=6.29%

Post Comment

The word ‘globalisation’ has mistakenly become associated in people’s minds with the internet. But globalisation must involve a worldwide network of trade in goods and services, which is possible without the communication provided by the internet. Of course, the internet allows people to exchange ideas and information at a distance, but it is not capable of moving tradable goods and people around the world. For that to happen there must be easily affordable transport. So what really drives globalisation is the availability of cheap air travel and cheap shipping.

24. It follows from what is stated in the above argument that the internet is:

A. A necessary, but not a sufficient condition for globalisation.

B. A sufficient, but not a necessary condition for globalisation.

C. Both a necessary and a sufficient condition for globalisation.

D. Neither a necessary nor a sufficient condition for globalisation.

0

Explanation

The correct answer is D.

The internet is not necessary for globalisation because it explains that communication and the exchange of ideas can be achieved without the internet. The internet is neither sufficient for globalisation as the passage states that globalisation requires the transportation of goods. This is something the internet cannot do. Therefore, the internet is neither necessary nor sufficient for globalisation, which is stated in statement D.

Post Comment

In his 2007 State of the Union address, President George W. Bush, called for the country to increase its ethanol production to 35 billion gallons per year by 2017 – or nearly five times the 7.5 billion gallon target for 2012 that Congress established in 2005. Raising biofuels consumption would cut U.S. dependence on foreign oil and help curb carbon dioxide emissions, because the plants from which the fuels are derived absorb atmospheric CO₂ during photosynthesis. Ethanol is now produced domestically from corn grown on 54,000 square kilometres of farmland, or an area a little larger than West Virginia. Reaching the president’s goal would require another 334,000 square kilometres, or the combined size of Kansas and Iowa.

25. Assuming production rates per square kilometre of farmland do not change between 2007 and 2017, approximately how much ethanol is being produced now?

A. 1.5 billion gallons

B. 4.9 billion gallons

C. 5.7 billion gallons

D. 6.7 billion gallons

E. 7.5 billion gallons

0

Explanation

The correct answer is B.

To reach the president’s goal, 334000+54000=388000 square kilometres of land would be required to produce 35 billion gallons of ethanol. This means to produce a single gallon of ethanol, 388000/35=11086 square kilometres are required. So if ethanol is now grown on 54000 square kilometres of land, this would provide 54000/11000=4.9 billion gallons of ethanol.

Post Comment

A budget airline operates a ‘sit anywhere’ policy on its short-haul flights.

Flight NJ201 to Madrid is booked to capacity. In row 8, as in all the rows, there are six seats, three each side of the aisle:

Four passengers are already sitting in row 8: Maurice and Noola are in adjacent seats, but Noola refuses to sit by a window. Olive has chosen a window seat and Pete an aisle seat. This leaves two seats, and by the time Quentin and Ron arrive they are the only unoccupied seats on the plane.

26. From this information, and if all the resulting seating arrangements are equally probable, what are the chances of Quentin and Ron finding two vacant seats next to each other?

A. 1/6

B. 1/4

C. 1/2

D. 2/3

E. 3/4

0

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

Representing where each person can sit using the first letter of their name:

N=8B, M=8A

N=8B, M=8C

N=8C, M=8B

N= 8E, M=8D

N=8E, M=8F

N=8F, M=8E

In each case, O or P can then sit on the same side of the aisle as N and M, which would leave two adjacent seats for Q and R on the other side of the aisle. The other option is if O and PO both sit on the other side of the aisle to N and M, which would mean Q and R would have to sit on opposite sides of the aisle. Therefore there are two possibilities, each with an equal probability, therefore the probability for both is ½.

Post Comment

A farmer has free range chickens. They are all over his farm and he has no easy way of counting them. However, he has devised a clever system. One day he rounded up 50 chickens, put metal rings around their legs and let them go. The next day he rounded up 50 chickens and found that 6 of them had rings on their legs.

27. Assuming there was no change in the number of chickens between the two days, what was his estimate of the number of chickens on the farm? (Give your answer to the nearest whole chicken.)

A. 300

B. 367

C. 417

D. 1500

E. 2200

0

Explanation

The correct answer is C.

Estimated population size

=(number of chickens with rings on their legs initially x number of chickens captured the next day)/number of chickens captured the next day that had rings on their legs

=(50×50)/6=2500/6=417

Post Comment

Young children who sleep with a light on may have a substantially higher risk of developing nearsightedness as a result, says a new study in the journal Nature.

The collaborative study of 479 children by researchers at the University of Pennsylvania Medical Center and The Children’s Hospital of Philadelphia found 55 percent of children who slept with a room light on before age 2 had myopia, or nearsightedness, between ages 2 and 16.

Of the children who slept with a night-light before age 2, 34 percent were myopic, while just 10 percent of children who slept in darkness were nearsighted.

28. Which one of the following, if true, gives a reason why the above argument might be flawed?

A. A later study showed that myopic parents are more likely to leave children’s lights on than those without myopia.

B. The study did not follow the subjects into adulthood.

C. American children are more prone to developing myopia than those from other parts of the world.

D. Few children in the third world, where there are few electric lights, wear glasses.

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Explanation

The correct answer is A.

Statement A is correct here because it provides another possible reason for children to develop myopia. The statement suggests the potential genetic link that myopic parents have children that develop myopia. This challenges the link between leaving a night light on and the risk of developing myopia in children. It is therefore a flaw to the argument if presumed correct.

Statements B-D do not directly challenge the link between leaving a night light on and the chance of developing myopia if they were presumed correct.

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Helen Medicmind Tutor

Tue, 26 Oct 2021 11:28:25

Isnt the genetic link suggested by A outside knowledge?

A conflict diamond is a diamond mined in a war zone and sold in order to finance the military rebellion of groups opposing legitimate and internationally recognised governments. While rough diamonds can be traced with some degree of accuracy to their source, once in their commercial, polished state, they can no longer be identified. Until regulations are brought into place that enable you to judge with confidence the true origins of a diamond, the purchasing of diamonds is morally unjustifiable. Diamonds are an unnecessary luxury, and at present the human cost for the war-torn countries that they may have come from is simply too high.

29. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument?

A. It may never be possible to know with certainty the origins of the diamond you wish to produce.

B. Military intervention has regularly proved more decisive when dealing with rebel insurgents than economic sanctions.

C. Sales of diamonds are an important source of revenue for the ‘recognised governments’ of war-torn countries.

D. Some people believe precious stones to have a deeper significance than that of wealth or luxury.

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Explanation

The correct answer is C.

The passage concludes that no diamonds should be purchased without knowing their true origin as they may be fuelling rebellion groups in war-torn areas. Therefore, the conclusion assumes that diamonds could be fuelling rebellion groups and not other bodies such as the recognised government of a country. Therefore, statement C weakens the main conclusion because if diamonds were an important source of revenue

for the recognised government of war-torn countries, then there purchase would be important and would thus be morally justifiable.

Statement A is incorrect because this serves as evidence to the argument rather than weakening the main conclusion.

Statement B is irrelevant because there is no mention of military intervention.

Statement D is also incorrect because it is irrelevant to weakening the main conclusion.

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Which two of the paper shapes shown below can be folded to form a cube with 6 complete faces?

30.

A. P and Q

B. P and R

C. P and S

D. Q and R

E. Q and S

F. R and S

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Explanation

The correct answer is E.

If R was folded the 2 protruding square faces on the left side of the net would overlap and hence a full cube would not be formed. Similarly, if P was folded the two triangular faces on the net would overlap.

Hence, only Q and S can be folded to form a complete cube.

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Athletes who use a heart rate monitor as a training aid need to identify their maximum heart rate in order to determine their effective training zones.

It should be remembered that any formula used to determine maximum heart rate (MHR) is only a best guess (based on research) and not a guarantee of the MHR value.

To determine your maximum heart rate (bpm – beats per minute) you could use the following, which combines the Miller formula with research from Londeree and Moeschberger.

1 Use the Miller formula of MHR=217-(0.85 x age) to calculate MHR.

2 Subtract 3 beats for elite athletes under 30.

Add 2 beats for 50 year old elite athletes.

Add 4 beats for 55+ year old elite athletes.

3 Use the resulting MHR value for running training.

Subtract 3 beats for rowing training.

Subtract 5 beats for bicycle training.

Subtract 14 beats for swimming training.

31. What is the estimated maximum heart rate for a 60 year old elite swimmer in training?

A. 152 bpm

B. 156 bpm

C. 166 bpm

D. 170 bpm

E. 176 bpm

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Explanation

The correct answer is B.

1- 217-(0.85×60)=166

2- 166+4=170

3- 170-14=156

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The graph below shows some of the results from a government survey into the effects that additional years of education have on wages. The results given are raw averages of the entire sample (around 20,000 people of all ages). Values are proportional to the difference in average wage when compared to the average wage of people who left education at 15 for each sex. For example women who left education at 18, regardless of their age at the time of the survey, earn on average 40% more than those who left education at 15.

32. Which one of the following conclusions may safely be drawn from the above graph?

A. Up to the age of 19, women’s average wages are higher than those of men.

B. Women staying in education past the age of 20 earn, on average, less than their male equivalents.

C. Extra education is always beneficial in increasing wages.

D. Education beyond the age of 21 or 22 on average does not enhance women’s wages.

E. A degree (taken between the ages of 18 and 21) adds, on average, 50 % or more to wages relative to people leaving education at 18.

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Explanation

The correct answer is D.

The percentages given are obtained by comparing to the average wage of people who left education at a given age for each sex. A cannot be concluded from only the information given because the percentages given for males are females are not relative to each other, but only to their own sex. Similarly, B cannot be concluded either without additional information. C is too extreme (it uses the word ‘always’) to be true in every case. D, however, can be concluded as it refers to data on different ages within the same sex catagory, which shows that the percentage for women does not rise beyond the age 21-22 level.

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The graph below shows some of the results from a government survey into the effects that additional years of education have on wages. The results given are raw averages of the entire sample (around 20,000 people of all ages). Values are proportional to the difference in average wage when compared to the average wage of people who left education at 15 for each sex. For example women who left education at 18, regardless of their age at the time of the survey, earn on average 40% more than those who left education at 15.

33. If the authors of the report concluded that each year of education past 15 improves wages by 8-10 % on average, which one of the following would be an assumption they were making in drawing this conclusion?

A. That a few graduates with extremely high wages are not biasing the data.

B. That people’s wages do not increase, on average, as they get older.

C. That higher wages are due mainly to the extra education.

D. That those people with higher wages would have had them even if they had not stayed in education longer.

E. That no 15 year olds earn any wages.

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Explanation

The correct answer is C.

If the authors have concluded that an increased length of time in education has led to an average increase in wages, they must be relying on the fact that this increase in wages was due to extra education rather than any other factors. Hence the answer is C.

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The graph below shows some of the results from a government survey into the effects that additional years of education have on wages. The results given are raw averages of the entire sample (around 20,000 people of all ages). Values are proportional to the difference in average wage when compared to the average wage of people who left education at 15 for each sex. For example women who left education at 18, regardless of their age at the time of the survey, earn on average 40% more than those who left education at 15.

It was found that the financial returns for a degree were somewhat less for trade union members.

34. Which one of the following would give a reason for this?

A. There has been a substantial fall in trade union membership over recent years.

B. Graduates in low paying jobs in the public sector are more likely to be trade union members.

C. Trade unions tend mainly to represent those in manual jobs who usually do not have degrees.

D. The average age of trade union members in the survey is higher than that of non-members.

E. Some people who used to be trade union members have recently resigned because they feel the subscriptions are not worth paying.

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Explanation

The correct answer is B.

There are two possible explanations for this trend: .trade union membership results in lower financial returns for a degree

Or

.lower financial returns for a degree results in trade union membership

B refers to the second explanation above.

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The graph below shows some of the results from a government survey into the effects that additional years of education have on wages. The results given are raw averages of the entire sample (around 20,000 people of all ages). Values are proportional to the difference in average wage when compared to the average wage of people who left education at 15 for each sex. For example women who left education at 18, regardless of their age at the time of the survey, earn on average 40% more than those who left education at 15.

35. On average, older people left education earlier but earned more. What effect has this had on the shape of the above graph (relative to the way the graph would look if this was not so)?

A. It has had no effect.

B. It has caused it to turn downward at the upper end.

C. The entire graph has shifted up.

D. The average gradient is lower than it would have been otherwise.

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Explanation

The correct answer is D.

This would mean that at the left side of the graph (younger ages) the percentages would be raised, because more people who left education at a young age would be earning more (their current age is irrelevant, so we only need to consider their ages when they left education). This would make the graph less steep going from left to right, therefore making the average gradient lower.

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BMAT 2007 S1 Review Screen

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BMAT 2007 S1

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BMAT 2007 S1 Review Screen

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BMAT 2007 S1 Section

Final Answer Review Screen

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BMAT 2007 S1 Section