This section is Section 1 of 3.

Speed as well as accuracy is important in this section. Work quickly, or you might not finish the paper. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only marks for correct answers, so you should attempt all 35 questions. Each question is worth one mark.

You must complete the answers within the time limit. Calculators are NOT permitted.

Good Luck!

Note – if press “End Exam” you can access full worked solutions for all past paper questions

Five children have had their height measured as part of a pre-school health check. Stuart is taller than Ruth who is taller than Margaret. Tim is shorter than Ruth and taller than Adrian.

1. Who must Adrian be shorter than?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    If Tim is shorter than Ruth, but taller than Adrian, then we know that Adrian is necessarily shorter than both, therefore the answer cannot be B or C. Since Tim is shorter than Ruth, and Stuart is taller than Ruth, Adrian must also be shorter than Stuart, so the answer is not E. We are therefore divided between A and D depending on whether Adrian is shorter than Margaret or not, but we are not given enough information to decide this as all we know is Margaret is shorter than Ruth but not by how much. Therefore, the answer is D. 

    Post Comment

    The number of people in the UK with tuberculosis (TB) has nearly doubled over the past 25 years, but for most of us the chances of catching the infection are still relatively small. Three quarters of all infections recorded last year were in people from deprived areas; half were not in employment, and one in ten had at least one social risk factor such as poor housing. In these cases, people’s immune systems may not be robust due to health problems or poor diet. TB is also more common in people from countries where it is endemic: about three quarters of those diagnosed in the UK every year were born outside the UK. One of the biggest problems in dealing with the new prevalence of TB is that the current generation of doctors is largely unfamiliar with it so they don’t even consider the diagnosis.

    2. Which one of the following could be drawn as a conclusion from the passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    Statement E is the best conclusion from all of the statements provided as the passage explains that more than 75% of TB infections were recorded in people from more deprived areas. Therefore, people born in the UK who are more affluent are less likely to catch TB. This is synonymous with statement E.

    Statement A is incorrect because the paragraph refers to people from deprived areas having poorer immune systems due health problems or poor diets rather than coming from other countries.

    Statement B is incorrect to assume because the paragraph only states that people in less deprived areas are more likely to have poorer diets. However, having a poor diet does not necessarily mean that the person must be from a more deprived area.

    Statement C is incorrect because the paragraph does not state that young doctors do not take TB seriously. Instead it highlights that doctors from this generation are largely unfamiliar with it.

    Statement D is incorrect because there is no evidence to indicate that figures of TB have been overestimated.

    Post Comment

    Rainbow Parcels is a parcel delivery company. It has seven delivery vans, each one a different colour. Each van is equipped with a meter which records the total distance travelled by the van since new.

    At the end of the last day of each month, the transport manager records the readings on the vans’ meters.

    The following table shows the readings for the second half of last year:

    3. Which van travelled the greatest distance during the three-month period from September 1st to November 30th last year?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    In a perfect example of the importance of reading the question, here we are told that the readings are from the end of the month so the starting value for September is actually the value in the August column. On eyeballing the figures, we see that they are too close to one another to estimate values accurately so you may need to quickly calculate each remembering to note down your values as you go! The answer in this case is the red van, having travelled 10,700 miles. 

    Top tip!
    Always try to eyeball questions first and remember that this is possible if the values are far apart. If close, it may be more time consuming to estimate and you may as well just calculate.

    Post Comment

    Recent research has found a surprising correlation between how women rate the physical attractiveness of male competitive cyclists and their overall performance in an endurance race, with those competitors rated most attractive finishing ahead of those rated less attractive. It seems that women are sensitive to those physical traits that relate to cycling excellence and unwittingly factor this into how attractive they find a particular participant. Therefore it would follow that attractive male film stars and models are likely to make successful cyclists.

    4. Which one of the following best expresses the flaw in the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    P1: Those competitors rated most attractive finished ahead of those rated less attractive in cycling.

    P2: It seems that women are sensitive to those physical traits that relate to cycling excellence and unwittingly factor this into how attractive they find a particular

    participant.

    C1: Attractive male film stars and models are likely to make successful cyclists.

    The gap between P1 and C1 forms the basis of the flaw in the argument. The passage suggests that being attractive is the only variable to succeeding in a cycling race.

    Post Comment

    There were 15 competitors in the Long Jump event at a recent athletics meeting.

    In the preliminary competition all the competitors were allowed two attempts, with the better of the two to count in each case. The top three and anyone else within 50 cm of third place qualified to take part in the final later in the day.

    The distances recorded in the preliminary competition were as follows:

    5. How many competitors qualified for the final of the Long Jump?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    We can more easily identify the top 3 by eyeballing the list and seeing that these must be competitors who achieved distances of 7 metres or above. We see that competitors 4, 10 and 13 are the top 3. The lowest score of these 3 is 7.17m and subtracting 0.5m (50cm) from this gives us a lower limit of 6.67m to qualify. Now we can simply see that competitors 2, 3, 5, 7 and  14 will qualify giving a total of 8 qualifiers including our top 3. 

    Post Comment

    Agriculture faces its biggest challenge since Neolithic days in the way it adapts – or fails to adapt – to climate change. Africa and southeast Asia will be worst affected. In 20 years’ time, their climate will be quite different from their climate today: crop varieties used now will yield dramatically less in the changed conditions. Famine and higher food prices will follow. To avert this disaster, we need to develop worldwide seed banks with detailed catalogues showing the traits of each variety and the resistance they have to heat, soil saturation or drought. Farmers can then begin to trial crops and prepare for the future. Seed banks are not the only answer to impending famine but they are an achievable first step.

    6. Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Statement C is correct here as the final two sentences explain how seed banks offer an appropriate first step in dealing with the impact climate change will have on crop variety and yields. It therefore mentions that these methods should be trialed now by farmers to prepare for the future. This is summarised in statement C.

    Statement A is evidence rather than the overarching conclusion.

    Statement B is incorrect because the passage explains how seed banks are not the only answer to the impending famine but rather an appropriate first step.

    Statement D is incorrect because Africa and southeast Asia are only mentioned as examples of areas that would be most affected rather than stating that they should be trialing such seed banks.

    Statement E is incorrect because it is too bold by stating that today’s crops will not be viable in the future.

    Post Comment

    The price of a particular share varies from day to day. On Monday the price of the share was £1. Tuesday’s price was 20% higher than Monday’s, and Thursday’s price was 25% up on Wednesday’s price. By the Friday of that week the price had returned to £1.

    Helen bought £1000 worth of this share on Monday and then sold them on Thursday to make a profit of £350.

    Paul bought £3000 worth of this share on Tuesday, but had to sell them the following day.

    7. Assuming that there are negligible costs associated with buying and selling these shares, what was the return on Paul’s investment?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    This question can be solved algebraically to embrace the uncertainty of the given information. We do know that a share cost £1 on Monday, and £1.20 on Tuesday as this was 20% up. We do not know Wednesday’s value, so let’s call this x. Since Thursday’s value was up 25% on this, we can call Thursday 1.25x. We know that Paul must have spent £3,000/1.2 = 2,500 shares on Monday, so now we just need to know the value on Wednesday to calculate his loss or gain. Since Helen bought £1,000 of shares on Monday at £1 apiece, she sold 1,000 shares on Thursday for £1,350.  Therefore, for 1,000 shares, 1.25x = 1,350 and x = 1,080 (for one share we can divide by 1,000 to see one share’s value at £1.08). This is therefore the value at which Paul sold his 2,500 shares for a value of £2,700 losing £300. 

    Post Comment
    anon Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 23 Oct 2021 07:22:30

    isnt it 2500-2700=200?

    According to figures published recently, 44% of criminals leaving prison will reoffend within one year of being released. So if the aim of prison (custodial) sentences is to stop people committing crimes, it really is not working. Short sentences are even worse, with 55% of offenders on short sentences reoffending within a year of leaving prison. And putting kids in prison is least effective of all – 70% of under-18s who receive prison sentences reoffend within 12 months. From a cold look at the statistics, prison does not look like a successful way to reduce crime, especially for young offenders on short-term sentences. So what are the alternatives?

    Whilst it is an option only for less serious categories of offence, giving offenders community service orders has been shown to reduce reoffending rates by 6%. This may be seen as a softer option by offenders and by the public, but when people are up in the dock convicted of an indictable offence, they are less likely to end up back in trouble if the judge gives them a community service order rather than a prison sentence.

    Another option that works even better is simply not sending someone to prison and giving them a suspended sentence instead. The figures show that people who get a suspended sentence are 9% less likely to reoffend than someone who committed a similar crime but was then sent to prison.

    But the most effective way of reducing reoffending is getting offenders to meet their victims. Campaigners for restorative justice programmes, where offenders engage with the impact of their crime and often meet their victims, say it can reduce reoffending by up to 27%. However, a government analysis puts the improvement at a more conservative 14%.

    The following studies contain relevant data, adapted from the November 2010 report from the Ministry of Justice, on which the above article was based:

    Study 1
    50000 former prisoners were tracked for 9 years after being released in 2000, and the number of re-convictions was matched to the time since release. The figures are all cumulative:

    Study 2
    126866 convicted criminals were tracked for one year following the end of their sentence, and their reoffending rates were matched to whether they had been given a short custodial sentence (i.e. a prison sentence of less than 12 months) or a noncustodial sentence. (In this study a person was considered to be a reoffender only if he/she had been reconvicted):

    8. Which one of the following statements is a conclusion that can reliably be drawn from the passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Statement A is not addressed in the passage so cannot be a reasonable conclusion – just because offenders who served their full sentence often reoffend, we cannot draw any conclusions about those who were released early.

    Statement C cannot be reasonably concluded either – just because the majority of young people reoffend does not make prison sentences in this age bracket uniformly a mistake.

    Statement D is not addressed in the passage, figures are only given for 9 years after leaving prison and this only reaches 72% of reoffenders. 

    Statement E cannot be reasonably concluded – just because short sentences (less than 12 months) are less effective at reducing reoffending it does not mean that prison sentences should always be longer than this. Some offenders may not deserve longer.

    Statement B can be reasonably concluded,  the passage tells us that non-custodial sentences are more effective at reducing reoffending. Unlike the other statements which do address reoffending rates, this statement gives the caveat ‘when a non-custodial sentence is also appropriate’ rather than suggesting it is always appropriate. 

     

    Top tip!

    The correct answer here is the least extreme option, always assess options which are less extreme first as they are more likely to be correct or at least reasonable inferences/conclusions. 

    Post Comment

    According to figures published recently, 44% of criminals leaving prison will reoffend within one year of being released. So if the aim of prison (custodial) sentences is to stop people committing crimes, it really is not working. Short sentences are even worse, with 55% of offenders on short sentences reoffending within a year of leaving prison. And putting kids in prison is least effective of all – 70% of under-18s who receive prison sentences reoffend within 12 months. From a cold look at the statistics, prison does not look like a successful way to reduce crime, especially for young offenders on short-term sentences. So what are the alternatives?

    Whilst it is an option only for less serious categories of offence, giving offenders community service orders has been shown to reduce reoffending rates by 6%. This may be seen as a softer option by offenders and by the public, but when people are up in the dock convicted of an indictable offence, they are less likely to end up back in trouble if the judge gives them a community service order rather than a prison sentence.

    Another option that works even better is simply not sending someone to prison and giving them a suspended sentence instead. The figures show that people who get a suspended sentence are 9% less likely to reoffend than someone who committed a similar crime but was then sent to prison.

    But the most effective way of reducing reoffending is getting offenders to meet their victims. Campaigners for restorative justice programmes, where offenders engage with the impact of their crime and often meet their victims, say it can reduce reoffending by up to 27%. However, a government analysis puts the improvement at a more conservative 14%.

    The following studies contain relevant data, adapted from the November 2010 report from the Ministry of Justice, on which the above article was based:

    Study 1
    50000 former prisoners were tracked for 9 years after being released in 2000, and the number of re-convictions was matched to the time since release. The figures are all cumulative:

    Study 2
    126866 convicted criminals were tracked for one year following the end of their sentence, and their reoffending rates were matched to whether they had been given a short custodial sentence (i.e. a prison sentence of less than 12 months) or a noncustodial sentence. (In this study a person was considered to be a reoffender only if he/she had been reconvicted):

    9. In Study 1, how many former prisoners who had not reoffended within a year of release from prison then reoffended within 5 years of release?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    At 5 years in total 66% of the 50,000 former prisoners had reoffended, a 22% increase from the 44% of reoffenders within 1 year of release. This 22% increase corresponds to 0.22 x 50,000 = 11,000 more former prisoners who reoffended between 1 year and 5 years after release. 

    Post Comment

    According to figures published recently, 44% of criminals leaving prison will reoffend within one year of being released. So if the aim of prison (custodial) sentences is to stop people committing crimes, it really is not working. Short sentences are even worse, with 55% of offenders on short sentences reoffending within a year of leaving prison. And putting kids in prison is least effective of all – 70% of under-18s who receive prison sentences reoffend within 12 months. From a cold look at the statistics, prison does not look like a successful way to reduce crime, especially for young offenders on short-term sentences. So what are the alternatives?

    Whilst it is an option only for less serious categories of offence, giving offenders community service orders has been shown to reduce reoffending rates by 6%. This may be seen as a softer option by offenders and by the public, but when people are up in the dock convicted of an indictable offence, they are less likely to end up back in trouble if the judge gives them a community service order rather than a prison sentence.

    Another option that works even better is simply not sending someone to prison and giving them a suspended sentence instead. The figures show that people who get a suspended sentence are 9% less likely to reoffend than someone who committed a similar crime but was then sent to prison.

    But the most effective way of reducing reoffending is getting offenders to meet their victims. Campaigners for restorative justice programmes, where offenders engage with the impact of their crime and often meet their victims, say it can reduce reoffending by up to 27%. However, a government analysis puts the improvement at a more conservative 14%.

    The following studies contain relevant data, adapted from the November 2010 report from the Ministry of Justice, on which the above article was based:

    Study 1
    50000 former prisoners were tracked for 9 years after being released in 2000, and the number of re-convictions was matched to the time since release. The figures are all cumulative:

    Study 2
    126866 convicted criminals were tracked for one year following the end of their sentence, and their reoffending rates were matched to whether they had been given a short custodial sentence (i.e. a prison sentence of less than 12 months) or a noncustodial sentence. (In this study a person was considered to be a reoffender only if he/she had been reconvicted):

    Study 2 shows that 55% of offenders released from a short prison sentence reoffended within a year, whilst only 22% of offenders did so  having served a non-custodial sentence. Yet the passage claims that giving offenders a community service order instead of a prison sentence “reduces reoffending rates by 6%”.

    10. Which one of the following is the best explanation for the apparent discrepancy between these figures?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Post Comment

    According to figures published recently, 44% of criminals leaving prison will reoffend within one year of being released. So if the aim of prison (custodial) sentences is to stop people committing crimes, it really is not working. Short sentences are even worse, with 55% of offenders on short sentences reoffending within a year of leaving prison. And putting kids in prison is least effective of all – 70% of under-18s who receive prison sentences reoffend within 12 months. From a cold look at the statistics, prison does not look like a successful way to reduce crime, especially for young offenders on short-term sentences. So what are the alternatives?

    Whilst it is an option only for less serious categories of offence, giving offenders community service orders has been shown to reduce reoffending rates by 6%. This may be seen as a softer option by offenders and by the public, but when people are up in the dock convicted of an indictable offence, they are less likely to end up back in trouble if the judge gives them a community service order rather than a prison sentence.

    Another option that works even better is simply not sending someone to prison and giving them a suspended sentence instead. The figures show that people who get a suspended sentence are 9% less likely to reoffend than someone who committed a similar crime but was then sent to prison.

    But the most effective way of reducing reoffending is getting offenders to meet their victims. Campaigners for restorative justice programmes, where offenders engage with the impact of their crime and often meet their victims, say it can reduce reoffending by up to 27%. However, a government analysis puts the improvement at a more conservative 14%.

    The following studies contain relevant data, adapted from the November 2010 report from the Ministry of Justice, on which the above article was based:

    Study 1
    50000 former prisoners were tracked for 9 years after being released in 2000, and the number of re-convictions was matched to the time since release. The figures are all cumulative:

    Study 2
    126866 convicted criminals were tracked for one year following the end of their sentence, and their reoffending rates were matched to whether they had been given a short custodial sentence (i.e. a prison sentence of less than 12 months) or a noncustodial sentence. (In this study a person was considered to be a reoffender only if he/she had been reconvicted):

    A politician argues that, on the basis of the report, more convicted offenders should where appropriate be subjected to restorative justice, such as meeting their victims, instead of being sent to prison, because this will reduce the likelihood of them reoffending.

    11. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens this argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    Statement A actually weakens the argument as our politician is arguing to use restorative justice ‘instead of’ prison sentences. 

    Statement B is irrelevant as an ‘appropriate sentence’ is subjective depending on one’s own idea about the goal of justice.

    Statement C does not really address the argument at all, whether or not victims want to meet people who committed offences the argument addresses the rate of reoffending.

    Statement D also does not address the argument, as no mention is made of the cost to the taxpayer.

    Statement E would strengthen the argument, as it fully addresses the point which is to reduce reoffending with statistics which are accurate to the study.

    Post Comment

    A youth club ran a “complete the puzzle against the clock” competition last Saturday. Teams had to complete a variety of puzzles and were awarded points determined by how long it took them to complete each puzzle:

    Less than 10 minutes = 9 points
    Between 10 and 20 minutes = 5 points
    Between 20 and 30 minutes = 3 points

    Any team failing to complete a puzzle within 30 minutes had 2 points taken off their score.

    At the half-way stage of the competition, when all teams had completed four puzzles, the total scores were displayed on a score-board as shown below:

    One of the teams has been credited with a score which is not possible from four puzzles on the given scoring system.

    12. Which team has a score which has been wrongly calculated (i.e. could not possibly have been scored at this stage)?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    I truly hope you’ve been watching certain shows on TV which I cannot name for copyright reasons, but which involve a big clock and a funky soundtrack. Each score must be formed from 4 of the numbers 9,5 and 3 with the possibility to subtract 2. There are 2 ways to work this out both of which roughly equal in difficulty, so decide whether it works better for you to work backwards from the value (eg: 24 – 5 – 5 – 5 – 9 = 0) or counting up to the value (eg: 5 + 9 + 9 – 2 = 21). From these examples we know that 24 and 21 are possible, and the rest are all possible in the same way except the Solitaires whose score of 23 is impossible. 

    9 + 5 + 5 + 3 = 22

    9 + 9 + 5 + 3 = 25

    Post Comment

    Should people who have been convicted of serious crimes be able to return to their career after serving a prison sentence? At first sight it seems only fair and just that they should, so that offenders can be rehabilitated into society. But what if that person has a career in a high profile job, such as a professional footballer? Millions of young supporters regard football players as role models and heroes. In this case, the giving of a second chance is not justified: it risks sending a message to young people that such behaviour is acceptable. For high profile people with young fans, there should be no second chance.

    13. Which one of the following is an assumption of the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    We are making an assumption that the rights of individuals are not as important as society because the fact that high profile people have young fans means that they cannot afford a second chance.

    Post Comment

    An artist has three 100ml tubes of paint: one red, one yellow and one blue.

    Mixing equal quantities of red and yellow gives orange, mixing equal quantities of red and blue gives purple, mixing equal quantities of yellow and blue gives green, and mixing equal quantities of red, yellow and blue gives brown.

    The design of a small mural needs 30% of brown and 20% of red, as well as 10% of each of blue, yellow, orange, purple and green.

    14. If after painting the mural the artist has 20ml of paint left in the red tube, how much blue paint will be left?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Let’s consider our 3 bottles to be 100% of the paint available to our budding Banksy. We know that afterwards 20ml is left in the red bottle, so we can start with working out the percentage of red paint used. We can calculate the percentage of red paint used to make each colour by looking at the percentage that each colour contributed to the mural, working out the split, then working out what percentage of the mural was formed from red paint. As follows: 

    • Red: 20% of the mural is red paint, we use only red paint for this so 20% of the mural overall is red paint
    • Brown: 30% of the mural is brown paint, we use 1/3 red paint for this, so 10% of of the mural overall is red paint
    • Purple: 10% of the mural is purple paint, we use 1/2 red paint for this, so 5% of the mural overall is red paint
    • Orange: 10% of the mural is orange paint, we use 1/2 red paint for this, so 5% of the mural overall is red paint

    In total, 40% of the mural was formed from red paint. If only 20ml of the bottle was left, then 80ml is 40% of the total paint used. The same operation for the percentage of blue paint tells us that 30% of the mural was blue. We can finally calculate that if 40%=80ml, then 10%=20ml and therefore the 30% of the mural which was blue corresponds to 60ml of paint. Therefore, 40ml of blue must remain. 

    Post Comment

    Despite advances in computer modelling and research on humans, we still understand very little about the human brain and we are unable to treat many neurological conditions and injuries effectively because of this. Human brains work in very similar ways to most primates and it is possible to create lesions in primate brains which mimic the effects of certain human conditions. If we accept that it is ethical to test on primates rather than humans, such research could be done using primates. Through understanding the effects of brain lesions, we may be able to develop treatments and therapies that would benefit humans.

    15. Which one of the following could be drawn as a conclusion from the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Statement A is correct because it mentions how primate experimentation (if ethically accepted) could offer the development of treatments of neurological conditions in humans, which would thus come as a benefit for humans.

    Statement B is incorrect because the passage explains that computer modelling is limited in understanding and coming up with treatment forms for human neurological conditions.

    Statement C is incorrect because there is no mention how creating new brain lessons in humans can help cure brain disorders.

    Statement D is incorrect because primate experimentation is not explicitly said to be unacceptable under most conditions. This also does not capture the overarching conclusion of the passage.

    Statement E is also incorrect because it is too bold when it states that it will help ‘cure’ neurological conditions rather than help understand the effects of brain lesions and help develop treatments and therapies.

    Post Comment

    Maisy attends a small rural school with 15 other girls and 10 boys.

    Of the girls in the school, three older ones have younger sisters in the school, and two other girls have brothers in the school. Of the boys in the school, two older ones have younger brothers in the school, and two other boys have sisters in the school.

    16. If there are no twins, and no family has more than two children in the school, how many of the children do not have either a brother or a sister in the school?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Here, it may help to make a notes table as follows:

    • There are 3 girls with sisters in the school mentioned, which means there are 6 girls with siblings as we include the girls mentioned and their sisters
    • There are 2 girls with brothers in the school, so we can list them and their brothers
    • There are 2 boys with brothers mentioned, which means there are a further 4 boys with siblings as we include both the mentioned boys and their brothers
    • We have already counted the 2 boys with sisters, as their sisters were mentioned earlier and are listed here in green

    Girls w/ siblings

    Boys w/siblings

    6

    2
    2

    4

    In total, there are 6+2+2+4, or 14 students with siblings. We are told that in total the students are Maisy, 15 girls and 10 boys or 26 students in total. Therefore, there are 12 students without siblings in the school.

    Post Comment

    The rate of recorded heart attacks among women in the UK could soon start to fall because a new blood test has been developed which provides a more accurate diagnosis of the incidence of heart attacks in women. Researchers believe that heart attacks in women may previously have been under-diagnosed because the ‘old’ blood test was not sufficiently sensitive. They believe that possibly twice as many women will be found using the new test to have had heart attacks as were found using the old one. With more accurate diagnosis, women can start treatment to reduce the risk of a further attack.

    17. Which one of the following best expresses the flaw in the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    If a test is more sensitive, it means it will pick up cases of heart attacks that were previously missed. The argument suggests that the development of a new blood test will reduce the rate of recorded heart attacks in women. The argument is therefore flawed as the number of recorded heart attacks will ultimately increase.

    Post Comment

    In the sport of Wingball there are three types of goal, as follows:

    • a span, which scores 8 points
    • a beat, which scores 5 points
    • a tip, which scores 2 points

    The Eagles scored a total of 720 points last season in the National Wingball League, setting a new record for the number of points scored in a season. Their 42 spans and 36 beats were also new records, but they fell just short of claiming the record for the most tips in a season.

    18. Which one of the following pie charts shows how many of the 720 points scored by the Eagles last season were from spans, how many were from beats and how many were from tips?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    I for one am already heavily invested in wingball, and thinking of blowing my pay for this job on Eagles merchandise. For this relatively simple question, we can calculate the points for spans and beats then subtract the total to find points contributed by tips. 

    • Spans – 42 x 8 = 336 points
    • Beats – 36 x 5 = 180 points
    • Tips – 720 – (336 + 180) = 204 points

    Simply by looking at spans, we can calculate that these contributed (336/720) x 100 = 46% of the points. Therefore, their slice of pie chart should be approaching half, but not over. B, D and F all have spans at about a quarter, which is not right. A and B are both over a half, which is also incorrect. This leaves E as the correct answer.

    Post Comment

    Sugary drink consumption is linked to weight gain and a host of obesity-related diseases including type II diabetes, coronary heart disease and some cancers. Sugary drinks contain ‘empty calories’ – 330ml of sugary drink typically provides 35g, or nine lumps, of sugar but no other nutritional value. Because liquid calories do not make us feel full, we do not compensate by eating fewer calories from solid food.

    Soft drinks are the largest single source of sugar for teenagers and children aged 4–10 years. According to National Diet and Nutrition Survey data (2008–2012), soft drinks contribute to 30% of sugar intake for teenagers, 17% for children aged 4–10 years and 12% for children 1.5–3 years. In part due to the high consumption of sugary drinks, “teenagers consume 50% more sugar on average than is currently recommended.”

    Two options for using taxation to reduce the consumption of sugary drinks are:

    • A “volume tax”, which is proportional to the volume of the drink.
    • A “sales tax”, which is a proportional to the price of the drink.

    According to the British Soft Drinks Association, approximately 5727 million litres of sugary drinks were consumed in 2011.

    There is evidence that a tax on consumption can have progressive health benefits, as poorer people suffer disproportionately from diet related illnesses. Research on tobacco and alcohol, for instance, has shown that a tax leads to a decrease in consumption. The revenue from the duty can be used to fund programmes that have a significant impact on children from low income households, such as free and high quality school meals.

    19. How many lumps of sugar would a 2-litre bottle of sugary drink typically be equivalent to?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    We are told in the 1st paragraph that 330ml of sugary drink contains 9 lumps of sugar. 2000/330 = approx. 6. Therefore, there are around 6 x 9 = 54 lumps of sugar in 2L of sugary drink

    Post Comment

    Sugary drink consumption is linked to weight gain and a host of obesity-related diseases including type II diabetes, coronary heart disease and some cancers. Sugary drinks contain ‘empty calories’ – 330ml of sugary drink typically provides 35g, or nine lumps, of sugar but no other nutritional value. Because liquid calories do not make us feel full, we do not compensate by eating fewer calories from solid food.

    Soft drinks are the largest single source of sugar for teenagers and children aged 4–10 years. According to National Diet and Nutrition Survey data (2008–2012), soft drinks contribute to 30% of sugar intake for teenagers, 17% for children aged 4–10 years and 12% for children 1.5–3 years. In part due to the high consumption of sugary drinks, “teenagers consume 50% more sugar on average than is currently recommended.”

    Two options for using taxation to reduce the consumption of sugary drinks are:

    • A “volume tax”, which is proportional to the volume of the drink.
    • A “sales tax”, which is a proportional to the price of the drink.

    According to the British Soft Drinks Association, approximately 5727 million litres of sugary drinks were consumed in 2011.

    There is evidence that a tax on consumption can have progressive health benefits, as poorer people suffer disproportionately from diet related illnesses. Research on tobacco and alcohol, for instance, has shown that a tax leads to a decrease in consumption. The revenue from the duty can be used to fund programmes that have a significant impact on children from low income households, such as free and high quality school meals.

    20. If the tax resulted in teenagers consuming only one third as much sugar from sugary drinks, how would their sugar intake compare to the recommended level?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    This question appears simple, and it is, but remember to read the question carefully. According to the passage, teenagers currently consume 50% more than the recommended, so let us say they consume 150% of the recommended amount. 

    Sugary drinks, according to the passage, contribute 30% of sugar intake in teenagers, so represent 45% of the current sugar intake. If the tax reduced this to a third, then it would be 15% of the current intake. This 15% would still represent 30% of intake, so if we consider the new total to be x then we can represent it with multipliers as 0.3x = 15. Therefore, x = 

    Post Comment
    sam Medicmind Tutor

    Wed, 27 Oct 2021 18:14:11

    bad way to explain it. 30% of 150=45 10% of 150=15 45-15=30 150-30=120 Obviously would need a worded explanation too but this method is much simpler

    Sugary drink consumption is linked to weight gain and a host of obesity-related diseases including type II diabetes, coronary heart disease and some cancers. Sugary drinks contain ‘empty calories’ – 330ml of sugary drink typically provides 35g, or nine lumps, of sugar but no other nutritional value. Because liquid calories do not make us feel full, we do not compensate by eating fewer calories from solid food.

    Soft drinks are the largest single source of sugar for teenagers and children aged 4–10 years. According to National Diet and Nutrition Survey data (2008–2012), soft drinks contribute to 30% of sugar intake for teenagers, 17% for children aged 4–10 years and 12% for children 1.5–3 years. In part due to the high consumption of sugary drinks, “teenagers consume 50% more sugar on average than is currently recommended.”

    Two options for using taxation to reduce the consumption of sugary drinks are:

    • A “volume tax”, which is proportional to the volume of the drink.
    • A “sales tax”, which is a proportional to the price of the drink.

    According to the British Soft Drinks Association, approximately 5727 million litres of sugary drinks were consumed in 2011.

    There is evidence that a tax on consumption can have progressive health benefits, as poorer people suffer disproportionately from diet related illnesses. Research on tobacco and alcohol, for instance, has shown that a tax leads to a decrease in consumption. The revenue from the duty can be used to fund programmes that have a significant impact on children from low income households, such as free and high quality school meals.

    21. If a volume tax of 20p per litre resulted in a 10% reduction in sales of sugary drinks compared to 2011, what would be the total amount of revenue from the tax (to the nearest million pounds)?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    First, calculate the new sales of sugary drinks. We can calculate this as 0.9 x 5727 = 5,152.5 million litres. Then, multiply this by 20 = 103,050p, then divide by 100 to get the value in pounds = 1,030.5 million pounds. The closest million is £1,031 million. 

    Post Comment

    Sugary drink consumption is linked to weight gain and a host of obesity-related diseases including type II diabetes, coronary heart disease and some cancers. Sugary drinks contain ‘empty calories’ – 330ml of sugary drink typically provides 35g, or nine lumps, of sugar but no other nutritional value. Because liquid calories do not make us feel full, we do not compensate by eating fewer calories from solid food.

    Soft drinks are the largest single source of sugar for teenagers and children aged 4–10 years. According to National Diet and Nutrition Survey data (2008–2012), soft drinks contribute to 30% of sugar intake for teenagers, 17% for children aged 4–10 years and 12% for children 1.5–3 years. In part due to the high consumption of sugary drinks, “teenagers consume 50% more sugar on average than is currently recommended.”

    Two options for using taxation to reduce the consumption of sugary drinks are:

    • A “volume tax”, which is proportional to the volume of the drink.
    • A “sales tax”, which is a proportional to the price of the drink.

    According to the British Soft Drinks Association, approximately 5727 million litres of sugary drinks were consumed in 2011.

    There is evidence that a tax on consumption can have progressive health benefits, as poorer people suffer disproportionately from diet related illnesses. Research on tobacco and alcohol, for instance, has shown that a tax leads to a decrease in consumption. The revenue from the duty can be used to fund programmes that have a significant impact on children from low income households, such as free and high quality school meals.

    22. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument for introducing a sales tax on sugary drinks rather than a volume tax?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Post Comment

    The street map below shows the locations of a hotel and six visitor attractions, together with walking distances shown in metres (m).

    A tourist stayed in the hotel and had time to visit only five of the attractions by taking the shortest route.

    23. Starting from and finishing at the hotel, his route was total of 530 m. Which one of the six attractions did he not visit?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    The trick here is simply to work out in order the shortest path, remembering to try something new if you run into something which massively increases distance. However, we can get the answer here by following the shortest path as we go. The tourist can travel 60m to the courts, then 80m to the fountain, another 80m to the arch, 90m on the shortest route to the castle, and 110m to the tower. At this point, they have travelled 420m so must return to the hotel by the 110m route in order to have travelled the correct total of 530m. Therefore, they missed the palace. 

    Top tip!
    This is something of a case study in eyeballing. For instance, to go clockwise from the courts wouldn’t make sense as the majority of distances on the left of the map are over 100m whereas the majority on the right are under 100m.

    Post Comment

    Although many schools have banned the sale of energy drinks filled with sugar and caffeine on the school site, this policy may backfire on those schools and on the results their students achieve in public examinations. Caffeine has been shown to improve focus, which could benefit students both in their studies before an examination and during the examination itself. Recent trials have also shown that caffeine can boost the effectiveness of short-term memory, which could help students to recall key information.

    1. Caffeine has been shown to reduce quality and duration of sleep.

    2. Caffeine withdrawal symptoms can include headaches.

    3. Sleep deprivation can cause lack of focus and poor memory.

    4. Any negative effects of moderate caffeine consumption are limited.

    5. Memory is an important factor in examination success.

    24. Which of the following statements taken together weaken the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    When looking at statements taken together, they must support one another. 

    Statements 1 and 2 are not really related, talking about sleep and withdrawal so do not form a cohesive argument. 

    Statements 1 and 3 are related, and together form a cohesive argument so this is the correct answer. 

    Statements 2 and 4 do not work as a cohesive argument, as statement 4 actually weakens the assertion in statement 2. 

    Statements 3 and 5 certainly form a cohesive argument about sleep deprivation worsening exam performance, however do not relate to caffeine without statement 1 saying that caffeine can worsen sleep quality. 

    Top tip!
    The ideal argument to weaken this passage is actually a combination of 1, 3 and 5, where 5 completes the cohesive argument of 1 and 3.

    Post Comment

    My 6-digit passcode for internet banking consists of six different digits.

    The second digit is 8.

    When the passcode is written as three 2-digit numbers, the three numbers add up to 80.

    When it is written as two 3-digit numbers, the two numbers add up to 800.

    25. What is the last digit of my passcode?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is F.

    We should start by writing out our spaces with what we know, which is _ 8 _ _ _ _. We can then also write out our known calculations as follows:

    _ 8 + _ _ + _ _ = 80

    _ 8 _ + _ _ _ = 800

    We know for our 3 two-digit numbers that they must total 80, so the second digits of each must total 10 or 20 and the first must total 60 or 70. However, we cannot use 10 for the second digits because this would require spaces 4 and 6 to both be 1, and we know all the numbers are different. Therefore, we must total 20 (and subsequently the first digits must total 60) so spaces 4 and 6 must total 12. They could either be 3 and 9, 4 and 8 or 5 and 7. However, they cannot be 4 and 8 because we have already used 8. 

    The only way to total 60 with different digits between 1 and 9 is to use 1, 2 and 3 (10 + 20 + 30). Therefore, considering our previous options, we cannot use 3 and 9 because we are using 3 in one of the first spaces. So, the second digits must be 5 and 7.

    For the second calculation, we know that the third and sixth digits must total 0. If the final digit were 5, then the third would also have to be and we need to use different digits. Therefore, the final must be 7.

    Top tip!

    There is no need to work out the positions of the digits 1, 2 and 3 here. Once you have the answer, move on as there’s no need for completion in these questions. 

    Post Comment

    Despite years of butter and saturated fats being given a bad press, it has recently emerged that studies in the 1980s that highlighted the dangers of eating too much of these fats were based on a misleading data set. Consequently, the guidance based on these studies to reduce the intake of saturated fats cannot be justified. These studies suggested that a high intake of saturated fat was associated with an increased risk of coronary heart disease and to counter this they should only make up 10% of our diet. Now that this research has been discredited, we can once again enjoy the tastes our grandparents enjoyed without risking our health.

    26. Which one of the following is an assumption made by the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    The argument of being able to enjoy butter and saturated fats again is based on the premise that the research in the 1980s has been discredited but what about other studies that could have supported this claim?

    We are jumping the gun massively by ignoring this possibility.

    Post Comment

    A survey of primary school children showed that between 55% and 65% owned a laptop computer, between 70% and 80% owned a mobile phone and fewer than 5% owned neither of these items.

    27. What percentage of the children owned both a laptop computer and a mobile phone?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    We can use a Venn diagram technique to think about questions like these. First, construct your diagram of laptops vs mobile phones as below.

    The box on the left must be equal to the stated value (let’s call it 55% just for this section for ease of understanding) minus x, as if 55% of students possess laptops then some of these students will also possess mobiles. 

    Then, we can construct an equation using upper and lower bounds to work out the difference between them. 

    For the lower bound:

    55 – x + x + 70 – x + 0 = 100

    125-x = 100

    x = 25

    For the upper bound: 

    65 – x + x + 80 – x + 5 = 100

    150 – x = 100

    X = 50

    Therefore, x = 25-50%.

    Insider tip!

    This is a Venn diagram technique which is just a small part of what we teach on our private tutoring courses. Techniques like these can really cut down your time in exams since you approach the question knowing what to do in the first instance.

    Post Comment

    It has been shown that most people are either ‘Night Owls’, who describe themselves as naturally more active and alert in the evening, or ‘Morning Larks’, who wake early and become less alert once daylight decreases. These patterns are linked to changes in the levels of the hormone melatonin (which is associated with feelings of sleepiness). Those who follow a ‘Morning Lark’ pattern show high levels of melatonin early in the evening and low levels by the early morning, with the opposite being true in ‘Night Owls’ with higher levels of melatonin still present in the morning after waking. Therefore employers should allow for flexible working hours to accommodate people’s sleep patterns

    28. Which one of the following, if true, most weakens the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The passage concludes that people are either ‘naturally’ ‘Night Owls’ or ‘Morning Larks.’ This implies that people are genetically or at least born with either being one or the other throughout their lives and therefore cannot change between being a ‘Night Owl’ and a ‘Morning Lark’, which is dependent on the amount of melatonin levels that are expressed both in the morning and evening.

    Statement A weakens the argument because it states that behaviour influences the level of melatonin that is expressed in the mornings and evenings rather than having naturally occurring levels of melatonin.

    Statements B-E are irrelevant to the main conclusion.

    Post Comment

    I want to decorate one of the rooms in my house by painting the four walls.

    The room is rectangular, measuring 5m by 4m, and is 2.5m high. There is a door in one of the narrower walls, measuring 1m wide by 2m high. There is also a window in the opposite wall to the door, measuring 2m wide by 1.5m high. I do not intend to paint the door or the window.

    I want to use two different colours, one colour on the two opposing narrower walls and the other colour on the two opposing wider walls.

    Each colour of paint is available from a high-quality manufacturer at £15 per tin or from a budget manufacturer at £11 per tin. To get a good finish, I need to put two coats of paint on the wall if I am using the high quality paint but three coats if I am using the budget paint. Tins of paint will cover a wall area of 15 square metres in a single coat whichever manufacturer I use.

    I do not have to use the same quality of paint for the two different colours.

    29. How much do I need to spend on paint in order to achieve a good finish on all four walls without buying any more paint than I have to?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    First, calculate the areas of each wall. The wider walls have dimensions of 5m by 2.5m, so an area of 5 x 2.5 = 12.5m2 so 25m2 total. The narrower walls have dimensions of 4m by 2.5m, so an area of 4 x 2.5 = 10m2 or 20m2 in total but we must subtract the areas of the door and window which have areas of 2m2 and 3m2 respectively, for 15m2

    To paint 25m2 of wall requiring 2 coats of high-quality paint requires 50m2 of paint, or 50/15 = 3.3… cans. Therefore, you would need to purchase 4 cans of high-quality paint for £60 for the wider walls. Or you could paint with lower quality paint which would require 3 coats or 75m2 of paint, which in low-quality paint would come to 5 pots at £55. Therefore, for the wide walls, low-quality paint should be used. 

    To paint 15m2 of wall requiring 2 coats of high-quality paint requires 30m2 of paint, which is 2 pots at £30. In low-quality paint, one would need 45m2 or 3 pots costing £33. Therefore for the narrow walls we should use high-quality paint. 

    Finally, we total £55 + £30 = £85.

    Post Comment

    Accident and Emergency (A&E) units have too many patients and not enough permanent staff to treat them. Working in A&E is not attractive to doctors: the environment is frenzied and the working hours are unsociable. For these reasons, newly qualified doctors tend to choose other specialisms. With too few permanent staff, hospitals are spending extremely large sums of money on temporary staff from agencies. One solution is to pay higher wages to permanent A&E doctors to provide an incentive to choose that specialism. The cost to the health service would be no greater – and could be less – as there would be no need to pay agency staff. We should make A&E more attractive to newly qualified doctors by providing financial incentives.

    30. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    The passage concludes that in order to incentivise working in A&E, permanent A&E doctors should be payed higher wages. This could reduce the overall costs borne by a health service as this would lead to a decrease in the costs associated with agency paid A&E workers.

    Statement D suggests that some doctors take on A&E work through agencies in order to supplement their salaries. This implies that they have a higher earning potential offered to them via agencies then through permanent positions .This thus supports the argument that doctors may be incentivised to pick a speciality based on pay. Thus, increasing A&E permanent wages may lead to an increase in A&E doctors working there

    permanently.

    Statements A & B both weakens the argument, as an increase in pay would not incentivise workers as well as the working conditions in A&E act as a deterrent.

    Statements C and E are irrelevant to the main conclusion.

    Post Comment

    There are a total of 7 spots on each pair of opposite faces on a conventional die.

    I have two unconventional dice. They both have faces with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 spots, but none of the opposite pairs on either die have a total of 7 spots and all six pairs have a different total.

    These are two views of one of my dice:

    31. What numbers are opposite 1 and 6 on the other die?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Another die question, I am literally ecstatic. These come up year on year in the UCAT, so it’s worth getting to grips with the tricks. 

    Firstly, we know that the dice both have the numbers 1-6 on them, so will total 21. We are considering the totals of opposing pairs of numbers, and for a 6-sided die there are 3 pairs of opposing numbers. This will become important later, as if we know the totals of 2 opposing pairs, we can subtract this from 21 to find the final total. 

    Drawing a net can be very helpful for these questions, but it’s critical that you remember certain rules. Observe the net below:

    When constructing nets from dice, you need to make sure you orient the dots correctly to make sure things are in the right place. For instance, we see that the 3 side is oriented with the bottom of the three dots next to the top of the rows of the 6 side, rather than laterally to them. 

    From this, we see that the totals are: 4+2 = 6, 6 + 5 = 11 and 3 + 1 = 4. Therefore, the totals on the other die cannot add to 4, 6 or 11. 

    For each option, we can work out what the 2 given opposing sets add to and then subtract this total from 21 to find the final total. For A and C-F, the totals all include 4, 6, 11 or 7. Therefore, the answer is B.

    Post Comment
    anonymous Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 23 Oct 2021 20:03:21

    where does 21 come from?

    anonymous Medicmind Tutor

    Tue, 26 Oct 2021 11:28:13

    6+5+4+3+2+1=21

    Cruelty to animals is a criminal offence in the UK. Investigations by the Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (RSPCA) lead to many offenders coming before the courts under the Animal Welfare Act, 2006. The success rate for prosecutions is high. Punishments include fines, community service, disqualification from keeping animals and prison.

    The RSPCA Prosecutions Department published the following figures in its 2013 Report:

    Animal cruelty offences and prosecutions nationally (England and Wales)

    *Total defendants convicted as a percentage of defendants whose cases were tried in court, but excluding cases where the charges were dropped by the RSPCA.

    **A disqualification order can be imposed as a penalty in its own right, or it can be additional to any other penalty imposed.

    ANIMAL CRUELTY WORST IN THE NORTH (The Times newspaper)
    There were more cases of animal cruelty in the north of England in 2013 than anywhere else in England and Wales, according to the RSPCA figures. The charity’s 2013 annual prosecutions report revealed that 126 people were convicted for animal cruelty offences in one northern county alone (West Yorkshire).

    Across England and Wales as a whole, the number of people convicted fell 11.7%, from 1552 in 2012 to 1371 in 2013, but in the north of England the number rose 6.6%, to 566 in 2013 compared with 531 the previous year.

    Mike Hogg, the RSPCA’s regional manager, said: “The figures are usually the highest in the north of England, and it’s impossible to say for certain why that is.” In the north, the RSPCA investigated 1763 more complaints in 2013 than in 2012. Last year it rescued a total of more than 17500 dogs and re-homed 55323 animals.

    Reader’s comment
    It is quite wrong to infer from the RSPCA’s findings that northerners are more often cruel to animals than southerners, as your article implies. The fact that there were more complaints made to the RSPCA in the north, and therefore more convictions, could simply show that northerners are more concerned about animals than people living further south.

    Which of the following claims is/are supported by the RSPCA data for the three years 2011 to 2013 (inclusive)?

    1 More than 4300 people were tried for animal welfare offences over the three years.

    2 Of the defendants tried in 2012 for animal welfare offences, over 30 were acquitted.

    3 Over two thirds of prison sentences handed out for animal welfare offences over the period were suspended.

    32. Which of the following claims is/are supported by the RSPCA data for the three years 2011 to 2013 (inclusive)?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is G.

    Statement 1:

    This statement is true. Across the years, there were 4,265 convictions in total. This represents (roughly) a 98% success rate of all prosecutions. Therefore, we can calculate (4,265/98) x 100 to see that there were 4,352 prosecutions. 

    Statement 2:

    This statement is true. In 2012, there were 1,552 convictions which represented a 97.9% successful prosecution rate with 2.1% acquittals. If 1,552 represents 97.9%, then 1,552/97.9 = 15.853. Therefore, 2.1% is equal to 15.853 x 2.1 = 33, which is over 30. 

    Statement 3:

    This statement is true. The total prison sentences handed out, suspended or otherwise, totals 786. The total suspended sentences were 538. This is equal to 538/786 = 68% which is over 2/3.

    Post Comment

    Cruelty to animals is a criminal offence in the UK. Investigations by the Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (RSPCA) lead to many offenders coming before the courts under the Animal Welfare Act, 2006. The success rate for prosecutions is high. Punishments include fines, community service, disqualification from keeping animals and prison.

    The RSPCA Prosecutions Department published the following figures in its 2013 Report:

    Animal cruelty offences and prosecutions nationally (England and Wales)

    *Total defendants convicted as a percentage of defendants whose cases were tried in court, but excluding cases where the charges were dropped by the RSPCA.

    **A disqualification order can be imposed as a penalty in its own right, or it can be additional to any other penalty imposed.

    ANIMAL CRUELTY WORST IN THE NORTH (The Times newspaper)
    There were more cases of animal cruelty in the north of England in 2013 than anywhere else in England and Wales, according to the RSPCA figures. The charity’s 2013 annual prosecutions report revealed that 126 people were convicted for animal cruelty offences in one northern county alone (West Yorkshire).

    Across England and Wales as a whole, the number of people convicted fell 11.7%, from 1552 in 2012 to 1371 in 2013, but in the north of England the number rose 6.6%, to 566 in 2013 compared with 531 the previous year.

    Mike Hogg, the RSPCA’s regional manager, said: “The figures are usually the highest in the north of England, and it’s impossible to say for certain why that is.” In the north, the RSPCA investigated 1763 more complaints in 2013 than in 2012. Last year it rescued a total of more than 17500 dogs and re-homed 55323 animals.

    Reader’s comment
    It is quite wrong to infer from the RSPCA’s findings that northerners are more often cruel to animals than southerners, as your article implies. The fact that there were more complaints made to the RSPCA in the north, and therefore more convictions, could simply show that northerners are more concerned about animals than people living further south.

    Suppose that convictions in the north of England had fallen in line with the overall trend for England and Wales.

    33. What would have been the total number of people convicted for animal cruelty offences in 2013 in England and Wales?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    First, calculate the split in 2013 for the North of England and the rest which is 1,371 – 566 = 805. If the crimes in the North had declined in line with this, then there would have been 11.7% fewer convictions that 531 which can be calculated with a multiplier as 531 x 0.883 = 469. We can then calculate that there would have been 805 + 469 = 1,274. 

    Post Comment

    Cruelty to animals is a criminal offence in the UK. Investigations by the Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (RSPCA) lead to many offenders coming before the courts under the Animal Welfare Act, 2006. The success rate for prosecutions is high. Punishments include fines, community service, disqualification from keeping animals and prison.

    The RSPCA Prosecutions Department published the following figures in its 2013 Report:

    Animal cruelty offences and prosecutions nationally (England and Wales)

    *Total defendants convicted as a percentage of defendants whose cases were tried in court, but excluding cases where the charges were dropped by the RSPCA.

    **A disqualification order can be imposed as a penalty in its own right, or it can be additional to any other penalty imposed.

    ANIMAL CRUELTY WORST IN THE NORTH (The Times newspaper)
    There were more cases of animal cruelty in the north of England in 2013 than anywhere else in England and Wales, according to the RSPCA figures. The charity’s 2013 annual prosecutions report revealed that 126 people were convicted for animal cruelty offences in one northern county alone (West Yorkshire).

    Across England and Wales as a whole, the number of people convicted fell 11.7%, from 1552 in 2012 to 1371 in 2013, but in the north of England the number rose 6.6%, to 566 in 2013 compared with 531 the previous year.

    Mike Hogg, the RSPCA’s regional manager, said: “The figures are usually the highest in the north of England, and it’s impossible to say for certain why that is.” In the north, the RSPCA investigated 1763 more complaints in 2013 than in 2012. Last year it rescued a total of more than 17500 dogs and re-homed 55323 animals.

    Reader’s comment
    It is quite wrong to infer from the RSPCA’s findings that northerners are more often cruel to animals than southerners, as your article implies. The fact that there were more complaints made to the RSPCA in the north, and therefore more convictions, could simply show that northerners are more concerned about animals than people living further south.

    Based on the RSPCA figures, which of the following inferences is/are fully supported?

    1 The highest increase for any region in England and Wales in animal welfare convictions between 2012 and 2013 was in West Yorkshire.

    2 The increase in convictions for animal cruelty offences in West Yorkshire was at least 6.6% higher in 2013 than in 2012.

    3 In 2013, two fifths of all convictions for animal cruelty offences in England and Wales occurred in the north of England.

    34. Based on the RSPCA figures, which of the following inferences is/are fully supported?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Statement 1:

    This statement is not supportable. We are only told the increase in the North of England, not in West Yorkshire. 

    Statement 2:

    This statement is not supportable. We are only told that the increase across the whole north of England was 6.6%, not that this was specifically the case in West Yorkshire. 

    Statement 3:

    This statement is supportable. In the north, there were 566 convictions compared to 1,371 in total. This is equal to 566/1,371 x 100 = 41% which is greater than 2/5. 

    Post Comment

    Cruelty to animals is a criminal offence in the UK. Investigations by the Royal Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (RSPCA) lead to many offenders coming before the courts under the Animal Welfare Act, 2006. The success rate for prosecutions is high. Punishments include fines, community service, disqualification from keeping animals and prison.

    The RSPCA Prosecutions Department published the following figures in its 2013 Report:

    Animal cruelty offences and prosecutions nationally (England and Wales)

    *Total defendants convicted as a percentage of defendants whose cases were tried in court, but excluding cases where the charges were dropped by the RSPCA.

    **A disqualification order can be imposed as a penalty in its own right, or it can be additional to any other penalty imposed.

    ANIMAL CRUELTY WORST IN THE NORTH (The Times newspaper)
    There were more cases of animal cruelty in the north of England in 2013 than anywhere else in England and Wales, according to the RSPCA figures. The charity’s 2013 annual prosecutions report revealed that 126 people were convicted for animal cruelty offences in one northern county alone (West Yorkshire).

    Across England and Wales as a whole, the number of people convicted fell 11.7%, from 1552 in 2012 to 1371 in 2013, but in the north of England the number rose 6.6%, to 566 in 2013 compared with 531 the previous year.

    Mike Hogg, the RSPCA’s regional manager, said: “The figures are usually the highest in the north of England, and it’s impossible to say for certain why that is.” In the north, the RSPCA investigated 1763 more complaints in 2013 than in 2012. Last year it rescued a total of more than 17500 dogs and re-homed 55323 animals.

    Reader’s comment
    It is quite wrong to infer from the RSPCA’s findings that northerners are more often cruel to animals than southerners, as your article implies. The fact that there were more complaints made to the RSPCA in the north, and therefore more convictions, could simply show that northerners are more concerned about animals than people living further south.

    35. Which one of the following items of additional information, if true, would most weaken the argument presented in the reader’s comment on The Times article?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

     

    If this were True, it would undermine the claim that because there are more cases of animal cruelty in the north, that there animal cruelty is worse in the north.

    It would be possible that there are actually less complaints in the North.

    Post Comment

    BMAT 2015 S1 Review Screen

    Instructions

    Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.

    The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:

    1. Review all of your questions and answers.
    2. Review questions that are incomplete.
    3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)

    You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.

    BMAT 2015 S1 Section

    Final Answer Review Screen

    Instructions

    This review section allows you to view the answers you made and see whether they were correct or not. Each question accessed from this screen has an 'Explain Answer' button in the top left hand side. By clicking on this you will obtain an explanation as to the correct answer.

    At the bottom of this screen you can choose to 'Review All' answers, 'Review Incorrect' answers or 'Review Flagged' answers. Alternatively you can go to specific questions by opening up any of the sub-tests below.

    BMAT 2015 S1 Section

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