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Medic Mind Mock 2
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Section Breakdown
Your Score | Average of all Users | Percentile | |
---|---|---|---|
Verbal Reasoning | |||
Decision Making | |||
Quantitative Reasoning | |||
Abstract Reasoning | |||
Situational Judgement |
Verbal Reasoning
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Decision Making
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Quantitative Reasoning
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Abstract Reasoning
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Situational Judgement
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Verbal Reasoning Practice Subtest Instructions
In this section of the exam, you will be presented with 11 passages to read, each associated with 4 questions.
Some questions assess critical reasoning skills, requiring candidates to make inferences and draw conclusions from information. You will need to read the passage of text carefully. You will then be presented with a question or incomplete statement and four response options. You are required to pick the best or most suitable response.
For other questions your task is to read each passage of text carefully and then decide whether the statement provided follows logically.
There are three answer options you can choose from:
True: On the basis of the information in the passage, the statement is true.
False: On the basis of the information in the passage, the statement is false.
Can’t Tell: You cannot tell from the information in the passage whether the statement is true or false.
Candidates will only be able to select one response.
It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.
Click the Next (N) button to proceed.
The Spanish language was originally derived from Latin on the Iberian Peninsula by the Romans in 210 BC. Over time, the Spanish language began borrowing words and grammar from several other Roman languages such as Iberian, Celtic, Celtiberian and Basque. The Spanish language began to be heavily influenced by many of what we know today as Romance languages such as French, Italian and Portuguese. The largest contributor to most Romance languages and especially the Spanish language is Latin.
Some even go as far as to say Latin is both the mother and the father of modern Spanish.Surprising to some, Arabic is another language that has heavily influenced Spanish. In the early 700’s CE, Arab armies invaded the Iberian Peninsula and began an occupation that lasted hundreds of years. This occupation had a tremendous influence on the modern Spanish language because a significant amount of Arabic words were integrated into Spanish at this time.
To this day there are about 4000 words, or 8% of the Spanish language, with Arabic origins. Shortly after the Arabs were expelled from the majority of the Iberian Peninsula in the 13th century, King Alfonso X declared Spanish as the official language of Spain and mandated that all official documents were to be written Spanish. This is where the standard Castilian version of Spanish was formally introduced that is still in use today.
It was after this time the Spanish language began to become distinctive from the other Romance languages, particularly Latin, in the way it pronounced its words. This change gradually began to take hold throughout the 15th and 16th centuries. During this time the first official book on Spanish language grammar was written called Gramática de la Lengua Castellana.
(Adapted from https://spanishwithstyle.com/the-evolution-of-the-spanish-language/)
Explanation
The correct answer is D. This is true because Latin is the biggest contributor to the Spanish language, according to the passage.
The Spanish language was originally derived from Latin on the Iberian Peninsula by the Romans in 210 BC. Over time, the Spanish language began borrowing words and grammar from several other Roman languages such as Iberian, Celtic, Celtiberian and Basque. The Spanish language began to be heavily influenced by many of what we know today as Romance languages such as French, Italian and Portuguese. The largest contributor to most Romance languages and especially the Spanish language is Latin.
Some even go as far as to say Latin is both the mother and the father of modern Spanish.Surprising to some, Arabic is another language that has heavily influenced Spanish. In the early 700’s CE, Arab armies invaded the Iberian Peninsula and began an occupation that lasted hundreds of years. This occupation had a tremendous influence on the modern Spanish language because a significant amount of Arabic words were integrated into Spanish at this time.
To this day there are about 4000 words, or 8% of the Spanish language, with Arabic origins. Shortly after the Arabs were expelled from the majority of the Iberian Peninsula in the 13th century, King Alfonso X declared Spanish as the official language of Spain and mandated that all official documents were to be written Spanish. This is where the standard Castilian version of Spanish was formally introduced that is still in use today.
It was after this time the Spanish language began to become distinctive from the other Romance languages, particularly Latin, in the way it pronounced its words. This change gradually began to take hold throughout the 15th and 16th centuries. During this time the first official book on Spanish language grammar was written called Gramática de la Lengua Castellana.
(Adapted from https://spanishwithstyle.com/the-evolution-of-the-spanish-language/)
Explanation
The correct answer is D. The passage states that around 4000 words have Arabic origins, so we can conclude that statement D is correct.

Fri, 02 Sep 2022 14:23:45
"In the early 700’s CE, Arab armies invaded the Iberian Peninsula" why is it not A?

Fri, 02 Sep 2022 14:25:42
nvm I get it
The Spanish language was originally derived from Latin on the Iberian Peninsula by the Romans in 210 BC. Over time, the Spanish language began borrowing words and grammar from several other Roman languages such as Iberian, Celtic, Celtiberian and Basque. The Spanish language began to be heavily influenced by many of what we know today as Romance languages such as French, Italian and Portuguese. The largest contributor to most Romance languages and especially the Spanish language is Latin.
Some even go as far as to say Latin is both the mother and the father of modern Spanish.Surprising to some, Arabic is another language that has heavily influenced Spanish. In the early 700’s CE, Arab armies invaded the Iberian Peninsula and began an occupation that lasted hundreds of years. This occupation had a tremendous influence on the modern Spanish language because a significant amount of Arabic words were integrated into Spanish at this time.
To this day there are about 4000 words, or 8% of the Spanish language, with Arabic origins. Shortly after the Arabs were expelled from the majority of the Iberian Peninsula in the 13th century, King Alfonso X declared Spanish as the official language of Spain and mandated that all official documents were to be written Spanish. This is where the standard Castilian version of Spanish was formally introduced that is still in use today.
It was after this time the Spanish language began to become distinctive from the other Romance languages, particularly Latin, in the way it pronounced its words. This change gradually began to take hold throughout the 15th and 16th centuries. During this time the first official book on Spanish language grammar was written called Gramática de la Lengua Castellana.
(Adapted from https://spanishwithstyle.com/the-evolution-of-the-spanish-language/)
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Although the passage states that major changes in the Spanish language occurred throughout history, we are told that it was originally derived from the Romans around 210 BC. Therefore, we know that it is over 2000 years old.
The Spanish language was originally derived from Latin on the Iberian Peninsula by the Romans in 210 BC. Over time, the Spanish language began borrowing words and grammar from several other Roman languages such as Iberian, Celtic, Celtiberian and Basque. The Spanish language began to be heavily influenced by many of what we know today as Romance languages such as French, Italian and Portuguese. The largest contributor to most Romance languages and especially the Spanish language is Latin.
Some even go as far as to say Latin is both the mother and the father of modern Spanish.Surprising to some, Arabic is another language that has heavily influenced Spanish. In the early 700’s CE, Arab armies invaded the Iberian Peninsula and began an occupation that lasted hundreds of years. This occupation had a tremendous influence on the modern Spanish language because a significant amount of Arabic words were integrated into Spanish at this time.
To this day there are about 4000 words, or 8% of the Spanish language, with Arabic origins. Shortly after the Arabs were expelled from the majority of the Iberian Peninsula in the 13th century, King Alfonso X declared Spanish as the official language of Spain and mandated that all official documents were to be written Spanish. This is where the standard Castilian version of Spanish was formally introduced that is still in use today.
It was after this time the Spanish language began to become distinctive from the other Romance languages, particularly Latin, in the way it pronounced its words. This change gradually began to take hold throughout the 15th and 16th centuries. During this time the first official book on Spanish language grammar was written called Gramática de la Lengua Castellana.
(Adapted from https://spanishwithstyle.com/the-evolution-of-the-spanish-language/)
Explanation
The correct answer is D. We know that Gramática de la Lengua Castellana was the first official book on Spanish grammar, and that Spanish grammar was influenced by Roman languages, including Iberian. Therefore, we can assume that Gramática de la Lengua Castellana was influenced by Iberian.
Top tip: This question is difficult as it requires you to synthesise two pieces of information found in different parts of the text. Remember that to make this inference, you need evidence that the book is on Spanish grammar and that Spanish grammar itself had Roman influences.
Common trap: Read the question carefully as some of these answer options rely on you being confused between Roman and Romance languages. From the passage, Iberian, Celtic, Celtiberian and Basque are Roman languages while French, Italian and Portugese are Romance languages.
IP home security cameras are Internet-connected security cameras that can be installed in people’s homes and remotely monitored via the web. These cameras are growing in popularity and the global market is expected to reach $1.3 billion by 2023. Research carried out by experts from Queen Mary, University of London showed that the information generated by the cameras could be monitored by attackers and used to predict when a house is occupied or not.
The researchers even found that future activity in the house could be predicted based on past information generated by the camera. They confirmed that attackers could detect when the camera was uploading motion, and even distinguish between certain types of motion, such as sitting or running. Dr Gareth Tyson, Senior Lecturer at Queen Mary University of London, said: “Once considered a luxury item, these cameras are now commonplace in homes worldwide. By understanding these risks, we can now look to propose ways to minimise the risks and protect user privacy.”
(Adapted from https://www.qmul.ac.uk/media/news/2020/se/new-research-reveals-privacy-risks-of-home-security-cameras.html )
Explanation
The correct answer is B. This is not true as the passage states that the cameras are remotely monitored (not using a remote) using the internet. This statement is therefore untrue.
IP home security cameras are Internet-connected security cameras that can be installed in people’s homes and remotely monitored via the web. These cameras are growing in popularity and the global market is expected to reach $1.3 billion by 2023. Research carried out by experts from Queen Mary, University of London showed that the information generated by the cameras could be monitored by attackers and used to predict when a house is occupied or not.
The researchers even found that future activity in the house could be predicted based on past information generated by the camera. They confirmed that attackers could detect when the camera was uploading motion, and even distinguish between certain types of motion, such as sitting or running. Dr Gareth Tyson, Senior Lecturer at Queen Mary University of London, said: “Once considered a luxury item, these cameras are now commonplace in homes worldwide. By understanding these risks, we can now look to propose ways to minimise the risks and protect user privacy.”
(Adapted from https://www.qmul.ac.uk/media/news/2020/se/new-research-reveals-privacy-risks-of-home-security-cameras.html )
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Although the text says that attackers are able to monitor the system, we are not told whether authorities will be able to do the same. The correct answer, therefore, is C.
Common trap: It is important not to assume that something will happen in the true/false VR questions. In this question, for example, presumably the authorities will also be able to access this information. However, since there is no mention in the text, we cannot select option A as there is no concrete evidence.
IP home security cameras are Internet-connected security cameras that can be installed in people’s homes and remotely monitored via the web. These cameras are growing in popularity and the global market is expected to reach $1.3 billion by 2023. Research carried out by experts from Queen Mary, University of London showed that the information generated by the cameras could be monitored by attackers and used to predict when a house is occupied or not.
The researchers even found that future activity in the house could be predicted based on past information generated by the camera. They confirmed that attackers could detect when the camera was uploading motion, and even distinguish between certain types of motion, such as sitting or running. Dr Gareth Tyson, Senior Lecturer at Queen Mary University of London, said: “Once considered a luxury item, these cameras are now commonplace in homes worldwide. By understanding these risks, we can now look to propose ways to minimise the risks and protect user privacy.”
(Adapted from https://www.qmul.ac.uk/media/news/2020/se/new-research-reveals-privacy-risks-of-home-security-cameras.html )
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Explanation: this is true because we are told that the attackers are able to use information from the camera to distinguish between different types of motion. Therefore, we can deduce that option A is correct.
IP home security cameras are Internet-connected security cameras that can be installed in people’s homes and remotely monitored via the web. These cameras are growing in popularity and the global market is expected to reach $1.3 billion by 2023. Research carried out by experts from Queen Mary, University of London showed that the information generated by the cameras could be monitored by attackers and used to predict when a house is occupied or not.
The researchers even found that future activity in the house could be predicted based on past information generated by the camera. They confirmed that attackers could detect when the camera was uploading motion, and even distinguish between certain types of motion, such as sitting or running. Dr Gareth Tyson, Senior Lecturer at Queen Mary University of London, said: “Once considered a luxury item, these cameras are now commonplace in homes worldwide. By understanding these risks, we can now look to propose ways to minimise the risks and protect user privacy.”
(Adapted from https://www.qmul.ac.uk/media/news/2020/se/new-research-reveals-privacy-risks-of-home-security-cameras.html )
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This is true, because we are told that these cameras are now commonplace and therefore many people have them now. The article is about the risk of these cameras being exploited by attackers and therefore option A is true.
The Hawaiian Islands were first settled as early as 400 C.E., when Polynesians from the Marquesas Islands, 2000 miles away, travelled to Hawaii’s Big Island in canoes. Highly skilled farmers and fishermen, Hawaiians lived in small communities ruled by chieftains who battled one another for territory.
Following Captain James Cook’s arrival to Hawaii in 1778, the first Christian missionaries arrived in 1820. Shortly afterward, Western traders came to the islands, bringing with them diseases that devastated the native Hawaiian population. Hawaiians had numbered about 300,000 when Cook arrived. By 1853, the native population was down to 70,000. In the 1890s, the last Hawaiian ruler, Queen Lili’uokalani was deposed, imprisoned and forced to abdicate.
In 1893, American colonists established the Republic of Hawaii. December 7, 1941, still lives in infamy as the day more than 2,300 Americans were killed in the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, on the island of Oahu. The U.S.S. Arizona, which sank with 1,100 men aboard, was turned into a memorial in 1962. The attack forced U.S. involvement in World War II, which ended with an unconditional Japanese surrender, signed on September 2, 1945, on the U.S.S. Battleship Missouri. Today, World War II buffs can tour the Missouri, which is still anchored in Pearl Harbor.
Explanation
The correct answer is A. We are told that the Islands were first settled in 400 C.E., so option A is true.
The Hawaiian Islands were first settled as early as 400 C.E., when Polynesians from the Marquesas Islands, 2000 miles away, travelled to Hawaii’s Big Island in canoes. Highly skilled farmers and fishermen, Hawaiians lived in small communities ruled by chieftains who battled one another for territory.
Following Captain James Cook’s arrival to Hawaii in 1778, the first Christian missionaries arrived in 1820. Shortly afterward, Western traders came to the islands, bringing with them diseases that devastated the native Hawaiian population. Hawaiians had numbered about 300,000 when Cook arrived. By 1853, the native population was down to 70,000. In the 1890s, the last Hawaiian ruler, Queen Lili’uokalani was deposed, imprisoned and forced to abdicate.
In 1893, American colonists established the Republic of Hawaii. December 7, 1941, still lives in infamy as the day more than 2,300 Americans were killed in the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, on the island of Oahu. The U.S.S. Arizona, which sank with 1,100 men aboard, was turned into a memorial in 1962. The attack forced U.S. involvement in World War II, which ended with an unconditional Japanese surrender, signed on September 2, 1945, on the U.S.S. Battleship Missouri. Today, World War II buffs can tour the Missouri, which is still anchored in Pearl Harbor.
Explanation
The correct answer is C. In the passage, it states that Queen Lili’uokalani was the last ruler of Hawaii. We can infer that option C is true.
A is incorrect as we are not given any information about the population of Hawaii in 1820.
B is incorrect as it says in the second paragraph that the population decreased from 300,000 to 70,000 from 1778 to 1853. This is a decrease of 230,000 in 75 years.
C is correct as it says at the end of the third paragraph that “the last Hawaiian ruler, Queen Lili’uokalani was deposed”.
D is incorrect as this cannot be inferred from the text.
The Hawaiian Islands were first settled as early as 400 C.E., when Polynesians from the Marquesas Islands, 2000 miles away, travelled to Hawaii’s Big Island in canoes. Highly skilled farmers and fishermen, Hawaiians lived in small communities ruled by chieftains who battled one another for territory.
Following Captain James Cook’s arrival to Hawaii in 1778, the first Christian missionaries arrived in 1820. Shortly afterward, Western traders came to the islands, bringing with them diseases that devastated the native Hawaiian population. Hawaiians had numbered about 300,000 when Cook arrived. By 1853, the native population was down to 70,000. In the 1890s, the last Hawaiian ruler, Queen Lili’uokalani was deposed, imprisoned and forced to abdicate.
In 1893, American colonists established the Republic of Hawaii. December 7, 1941, still lives in infamy as the day more than 2,300 Americans were killed in the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, on the island of Oahu. The U.S.S. Arizona, which sank with 1,100 men aboard, was turned into a memorial in 1962. The attack forced U.S. involvement in World War II, which ended with an unconditional Japanese surrender, signed on September 2, 1945, on the U.S.S. Battleship Missouri. Today, World War II buffs can tour the Missouri, which is still anchored in Pearl Harbor.
Explanation
The correct answer is B. This is true because in the passage it states that over 2300 Americans were killed in the attack. A is correct but is not the right answer because we are not told whether Oahu is in Hawaii. C is incorrect as we are told in the last paragraph that Japanese troops surrendered. D is incorrect as in the last paragraph we are told that only 1 ship sunk – the U.S.S. Arizona.
Common trap: Option A is correct; however, this is not mentioned in the passage. If you think two options could be correct, try and find evidence in the passage for each one.
The Hawaiian Islands were first settled as early as 400 C.E., when Polynesians from the Marquesas Islands, 2000 miles away, travelled to Hawaii’s Big Island in canoes. Highly skilled farmers and fishermen, Hawaiians lived in small communities ruled by chieftains who battled one another for territory.
Following Captain James Cook’s arrival to Hawaii in 1778, the first Christian missionaries arrived in 1820. Shortly afterward, Western traders came to the islands, bringing with them diseases that devastated the native Hawaiian population. Hawaiians had numbered about 300,000 when Cook arrived. By 1853, the native population was down to 70,000. In the 1890s, the last Hawaiian ruler, Queen Lili’uokalani was deposed, imprisoned and forced to abdicate.
In 1893, American colonists established the Republic of Hawaii. December 7, 1941, still lives in infamy as the day more than 2,300 Americans were killed in the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, on the island of Oahu. The U.S.S. Arizona, which sank with 1,100 men aboard, was turned into a memorial in 1962. The attack forced U.S. involvement in World War II, which ended with an unconditional Japanese surrender, signed on September 2, 1945, on the U.S.S. Battleship Missouri. Today, World War II buffs can tour the Missouri, which is still anchored in Pearl Harbor.
Explanation
The correct answer is B. The passage initially states that the Polynesian people of the Marquesas Islands first settled in Hawaii. Therefore, we can infer that the natives in Hawaii have Polynesian ethnicity. A, C and D are not correct as we are not given this information in the passage.
Common trap: Do not use your own knowledge in the VR section. This is a common mistake which costs candidates many marks, but all information used to find out the answer should be found in the passage.
Playing video games, including violent shooter games, may boost children’s learning, health and social skills, according to a review of research in American Psychologist.
The study comes out as debate continues among psychologists and other health professionals regarding the effects of violent media on youth. An APA task force is conducting a comprehensive review of research on violence in video games and interactive media and will release its findings later this year.
“Important research has already been conducted for decades on the negative effects of gaming, including addiction, depression and aggression, and we are certainly not suggesting that this should be ignored,” says Isabela Granic, PhD, of Radboud University Nijmegen in The Netherlands, lead author of the article. “However, to understand the impact of video games on children’s and adolescents’ development, a more balanced perspective is needed.”
While one widely held view maintains that playing video games is intellectually lazy, such play actually may strengthen a range of cognitive skills such as spatial navigation, reasoning, memory and perception, according to several studies reviewed in the article. This is particularly true for shooter video games, which are often violent, the authors found. A 2013 meta-analysis found that playing shooter video games improved a player’s capacity to think about objects in three dimensions just as well as academic courses designed to enhance these same skills, according to the study.
(Taken from https://www.apa.org/monitor/2014/02/video-game)
Explanation
The correct answer is C. At the start of paragraph 2, the text documents some negative aspects associated with gaming. A is incorrect we are told in the first paragraph that they may boost children’s learning and social skills. B is also incorrect because we are told that the review has not yet been completed and the findings haven’t yet been released. D is incorrect as in the last paragraph we are told that playing video game may ‘strengthen a range of cognitive skills.
Top tip: this is a statement type question. Remember that the best approach to these questions is to read the introduction and pick the keyword, then read around the keyword to find the correct answer.
Playing video games, including violent shooter games, may boost children’s learning, health and social skills, according to a review of research in American Psychologist.
The study comes out as debate continues among psychologists and other health professionals regarding the effects of violent media on youth. An APA task force is conducting a comprehensive review of research on violence in video games and interactive media and will release its findings later this year.
“Important research has already been conducted for decades on the negative effects of gaming, including addiction, depression and aggression, and we are certainly not suggesting that this should be ignored,” says Isabela Granic, PhD, of Radboud University Nijmegen in The Netherlands, lead author of the article. “However, to understand the impact of video games on children’s and adolescents’ development, a more balanced perspective is needed.”
While one widely held view maintains that playing video games is intellectually lazy, such play actually may strengthen a range of cognitive skills such as spatial navigation, reasoning, memory and perception, according to several studies reviewed in the article. This is particularly true for shooter video games, which are often violent, the authors found. A 2013 meta-analysis found that playing shooter video games improved a player’s capacity to think about objects in three dimensions just as well as academic courses designed to enhance these same skills, according to the study.
(Taken from https://www.apa.org/monitor/2014/02/video-game)
Explanation
The correct answer is D. At the end of paragraph 2, the passage states that the lead of the review wanted to provide a more balanced perspective on the impact of video games.
Playing video games, including violent shooter games, may boost children’s learning, health and social skills, according to a review of research in American Psychologist.
The study comes out as debate continues among psychologists and other health professionals regarding the effects of violent media on youth. An APA task force is conducting a comprehensive review of research on violence in video games and interactive media and will release its findings later this year.
“Important research has already been conducted for decades on the negative effects of gaming, including addiction, depression and aggression, and we are certainly not suggesting that this should be ignored,” says Isabela Granic, PhD, of Radboud University Nijmegen in The Netherlands, lead author of the article. “However, to understand the impact of video games on children’s and adolescents’ development, a more balanced perspective is needed.”
While one widely held view maintains that playing video games is intellectually lazy, such play actually may strengthen a range of cognitive skills such as spatial navigation, reasoning, memory and perception, according to several studies reviewed in the article. This is particularly true for shooter video games, which are often violent, the authors found. A 2013 meta-analysis found that playing shooter video games improved a player’s capacity to think about objects in three dimensions just as well as academic courses designed to enhance these same skills, according to the study.
(Taken from https://www.apa.org/monitor/2014/02/video-game)
Explanation
The correct answer is C. At the start of paragraph 3, the authors state that improvement of cognitive abilities in video gaming is ‘particularly true’ for shooter video games. We can therefore conclude that option C is the correct answer.
Timing tip: To save time in this question, look for the keyword in the text (in this case, shooter video games). All the answer options are related to shooter video games in this case, so this approach will save time.
Playing video games, including violent shooter games, may boost children’s learning, health and social skills, according to a review of research in American Psychologist.
The study comes out as debate continues among psychologists and other health professionals regarding the effects of violent media on youth. An APA task force is conducting a comprehensive review of research on violence in video games and interactive media and will release its findings later this year.
“Important research has already been conducted for decades on the negative effects of gaming, including addiction, depression and aggression, and we are certainly not suggesting that this should be ignored,” says Isabela Granic, PhD, of Radboud University Nijmegen in The Netherlands, lead author of the article. “However, to understand the impact of video games on children’s and adolescents’ development, a more balanced perspective is needed.”
While one widely held view maintains that playing video games is intellectually lazy, such play actually may strengthen a range of cognitive skills such as spatial navigation, reasoning, memory and perception, according to several studies reviewed in the article. This is particularly true for shooter video games, which are often violent, the authors found. A 2013 meta-analysis found that playing shooter video games improved a player’s capacity to think about objects in three dimensions just as well as academic courses designed to enhance these same skills, according to the study.
(Taken from https://www.apa.org/monitor/2014/02/video-game)
Explanation
The correct answer is D. The text states that playing shooter video games improves three-dimensional thinking to the same extent as academic courses. Therefore, option D is correct
In 2019, scientists witnessed a massive star 2.5 million times brighter than the sun disappear without a trace. Perhaps, a team of astrophysicists theorise, the massive star died and collapsed into a black hole without undergoing a supernova explosion first — a truly “unprecedented” act of stellar suicide. “If true, this would be the first direct detection of such a monster star ending its life in this manner”.
The star in question, located about 75 million light-years away in the constellation Aquarius, was well studied between 2001 and 2011. The bloated orb was a superb example of a luminous blue variable (LBV) — a massive star approaching the end of its life and prone to unpredictable variations in brightness. Stars like this are rare, with only a handful confirmed in the universe so far.
In 2019, astronomers hoped to use the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope to learn more about the distant LBV’s mysterious evolution, only to discover that the star had seemingly completely vanished from its host galaxy.
Normally, when a star much larger than our sun reaches the end of its life, it erupts in an enormous supernova explosion. These explosions are easy to spot, as they stain the sky around them with ionized gas and powerful radiation for many light-years in every direction. Following the blast, the dense core of leftover stellar material may collapse into a black hole or a neutron star — two of space’s most massive and mysterious objects. The missing LBV left no such radiation. It simply disappeared.
(Adapted from https://www.livescience.com/disappearing-star-black-hole-no-supernova.html)
Explanation
The correct answer is B. The passage states that option B is “a[n]… act of stellar suicide”. Therefore, this is the correct answer.
In 2019, scientists witnessed a massive star 2.5 million times brighter than the sun disappear without a trace. Perhaps, a team of astrophysicists theorise, the massive star died and collapsed into a black hole without undergoing a supernova explosion first — a truly “unprecedented” act of stellar suicide. “If true, this would be the first direct detection of such a monster star ending its life in this manner”.
The star in question, located about 75 million light-years away in the constellation Aquarius, was well studied between 2001 and 2011. The bloated orb was a superb example of a luminous blue variable (LBV) — a massive star approaching the end of its life and prone to unpredictable variations in brightness. Stars like this are rare, with only a handful confirmed in the universe so far.
In 2019, astronomers hoped to use the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope to learn more about the distant LBV’s mysterious evolution, only to discover that the star had seemingly completely vanished from its host galaxy.
Normally, when a star much larger than our sun reaches the end of its life, it erupts in an enormous supernova explosion. These explosions are easy to spot, as they stain the sky around them with ionized gas and powerful radiation for many light-years in every direction. Following the blast, the dense core of leftover stellar material may collapse into a black hole or a neutron star — two of space’s most massive and mysterious objects. The missing LBV left no such radiation. It simply disappeared.
(Adapted from https://www.livescience.com/disappearing-star-black-hole-no-supernova.html)
Explanation
The correct answer is A. According to the passage, this type of star was prone to large fluctuations in brightness. From this we can infer that option A is a true statement.

Sun, 28 Aug 2022 21:18:03
How is B incorrect?
In 2019, scientists witnessed a massive star 2.5 million times brighter than the sun disappear without a trace. Perhaps, a team of astrophysicists theorise, the massive star died and collapsed into a black hole without undergoing a supernova explosion first — a truly “unprecedented” act of stellar suicide. “If true, this would be the first direct detection of such a monster star ending its life in this manner”.
The star in question, located about 75 million light-years away in the constellation Aquarius, was well studied between 2001 and 2011. The bloated orb was a superb example of a luminous blue variable (LBV) — a massive star approaching the end of its life and prone to unpredictable variations in brightness. Stars like this are rare, with only a handful confirmed in the universe so far.
In 2019, astronomers hoped to use the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope to learn more about the distant LBV’s mysterious evolution, only to discover that the star had seemingly completely vanished from its host galaxy.
Normally, when a star much larger than our sun reaches the end of its life, it erupts in an enormous supernova explosion. These explosions are easy to spot, as they stain the sky around them with ionized gas and powerful radiation for many light-years in every direction. Following the blast, the dense core of leftover stellar material may collapse into a black hole or a neutron star — two of space’s most massive and mysterious objects. The missing LBV left no such radiation. It simply disappeared.
(Adapted from https://www.livescience.com/disappearing-star-black-hole-no-supernova.html)
Explanation
The correct answer is C. The passage states that the star was ‘approaching the end of its life’. Therefore, we can deduce that the star was expected to die soon after it was discovered.
In 2019, scientists witnessed a massive star 2.5 million times brighter than the sun disappear without a trace. Perhaps, a team of astrophysicists theorise, the massive star died and collapsed into a black hole without undergoing a supernova explosion first — a truly “unprecedented” act of stellar suicide. “If true, this would be the first direct detection of such a monster star ending its life in this manner”.
The star in question, located about 75 million light-years away in the constellation Aquarius, was well studied between 2001 and 2011. The bloated orb was a superb example of a luminous blue variable (LBV) — a massive star approaching the end of its life and prone to unpredictable variations in brightness. Stars like this are rare, with only a handful confirmed in the universe so far.
In 2019, astronomers hoped to use the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope to learn more about the distant LBV’s mysterious evolution, only to discover that the star had seemingly completely vanished from its host galaxy.
Normally, when a star much larger than our sun reaches the end of its life, it erupts in an enormous supernova explosion. These explosions are easy to spot, as they stain the sky around them with ionized gas and powerful radiation for many light-years in every direction. Following the blast, the dense core of leftover stellar material may collapse into a black hole or a neutron star — two of space’s most massive and mysterious objects. The missing LBV left no such radiation. It simply disappeared.
(Adapted from https://www.livescience.com/disappearing-star-black-hole-no-supernova.html)
Explanation
The correct answer is B. The passage states that powerful radiation can be emitted in every direction, so option B is correct. Option A is incorrect as the passage says this ‘normally’ occurs, but not always.
Top tip: Be wary of any statements that have words such as ‘always’ or never’ in them, known as Extreme Language. These words are often included to trip candidates up – make sure that there is sufficient evidence before selecting these options.

Tue, 19 Jul 2022 17:10:42
does not say anything about spherical projection.

Tue, 02 Aug 2022 17:33:48
Every direction in a 3D plane makes a sphere you doughnut
The price of a share of stock, like that of any other financial asset, equals the present value of the sum of the expected dividends or other cash payments to the shareholders, where future payments are discounted by the interest rate and risks involved. Most of the cash payments to shareholders arise from dividends, which are paid out of earnings and other distributions resulting from the sale or liquidation of assets.
The cash payments available to a shareholder are uncertain and subject to the earnings of the firm. This uncertainty contrasts sharply with cash payments to bondholders, the value of which is fixed by contractual obligation and is paid in a timely manner unless the firm encounters severe financial stress, such as bankruptcy. As a result, the price of stocks normally fluctuates more than the price of bonds.
Over time, most firms pay rising dividends. Dividends increase for two reasons. First, because firms rarely pay out all their earnings as dividends, the difference, called retained earnings, is available to the firm to invest or buy back its shares.
This, in turn, often produces greater future earnings and, hence, higher prospective dividends. Second, a firm’s earnings will rise as the price of its output rises with inflation, as demand for its products grows, and as the firm operates more efficiently. Firms with steadily rising dividends are sought after by investors, who often pay premium prices to own such firms.
Cash payments to shareholders also result from the sale of some of the firm’s assets, liquidation, or a buyout. A firm may sell some of its operations, using the revenues from the sale to provide a lump-sum distribution to shareholders. When a firm sells all its operations and assets, this total liquidation results in a cash distribution after obligations to creditors are satisfied. Finally, if another firm or individual purchases the firm, existing shareholders are often eligible to receive cash distributions.
(Taken from: https://www.econlib.org/library/Enc/StockMarket.html)
Explanation
The correct answer is B. From the text, we know that the price of bonds usually fluctuates more than the price of stocks. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

Thu, 11 Aug 2022 19:03:05
WRONG! 'the price of stocks normally fluctuates more than the price of bonds.'

Mon, 23 Jan 2023 11:51:09
How is this correct when it says 'As a result, the price of stocks normally fluctuates more than the price of bonds.'
The price of a share of stock, like that of any other financial asset, equals the present value of the sum of the expected dividends or other cash payments to the shareholders, where future payments are discounted by the interest rate and risks involved. Most of the cash payments to shareholders arise from dividends, which are paid out of earnings and other distributions resulting from the sale or liquidation of assets.
The cash payments available to a shareholder are uncertain and subject to the earnings of the firm. This uncertainty contrasts sharply with cash payments to bondholders, the value of which is fixed by contractual obligation and is paid in a timely manner unless the firm encounters severe financial stress, such as bankruptcy. As a result, the price of stocks normally fluctuates more than the price of bonds.
Over time, most firms pay rising dividends. Dividends increase for two reasons. First, because firms rarely pay out all their earnings as dividends, the difference, called retained earnings, is available to the firm to invest or buy back its shares.
This, in turn, often produces greater future earnings and, hence, higher prospective dividends. Second, a firm’s earnings will rise as the price of its output rises with inflation, as demand for its products grows, and as the firm operates more efficiently. Firms with steadily rising dividends are sought after by investors, who often pay premium prices to own such firms.
Cash payments to shareholders also result from the sale of some of the firm’s assets, liquidation, or a buyout. A firm may sell some of its operations, using the revenues from the sale to provide a lump-sum distribution to shareholders. When a firm sells all its operations and assets, this total liquidation results in a cash distribution after obligations to creditors are satisfied. Finally, if another firm or individual purchases the firm, existing shareholders are often eligible to receive cash distributions.
(Taken from: https://www.econlib.org/library/Enc/StockMarket.html)
Explanation
The correct answer is A. From paragraph 3, we can say that there are two main reasons why dividends increase in value; retained earnings will often produce higher earnings in the future, and as the firm becomes more successful, investors are more likely to pay higher premiums for dividends.
The price of a share of stock, like that of any other financial asset, equals the present value of the sum of the expected dividends or other cash payments to the shareholders, where future payments are discounted by the interest rate and risks involved. Most of the cash payments to shareholders arise from dividends, which are paid out of earnings and other distributions resulting from the sale or liquidation of assets.
The cash payments available to a shareholder are uncertain and subject to the earnings of the firm. This uncertainty contrasts sharply with cash payments to bondholders, the value of which is fixed by contractual obligation and is paid in a timely manner unless the firm encounters severe financial stress, such as bankruptcy. As a result, the price of stocks normally fluctuates more than the price of bonds.
Over time, most firms pay rising dividends. Dividends increase for two reasons. First, because firms rarely pay out all their earnings as dividends, the difference, called retained earnings, is available to the firm to invest or buy back its shares.
This, in turn, often produces greater future earnings and, hence, higher prospective dividends. Second, a firm’s earnings will rise as the price of its output rises with inflation, as demand for its products grows, and as the firm operates more efficiently. Firms with steadily rising dividends are sought after by investors, who often pay premium prices to own such firms.
Cash payments to shareholders also result from the sale of some of the firm’s assets, liquidation, or a buyout. A firm may sell some of its operations, using the revenues from the sale to provide a lump-sum distribution to shareholders. When a firm sells all its operations and assets, this total liquidation results in a cash distribution after obligations to creditors are satisfied. Finally, if another firm or individual purchases the firm, existing shareholders are often eligible to receive cash distributions.
(Taken from: https://www.econlib.org/library/Enc/StockMarket.html)
Explanation
The correct answer is B. The passage states that the dividends received by shareholders will depend on that firm’s earnings. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Common trap: Option C is a prime example of why wording matters in the VR section of UCAT. Beware of words such as ‘always’ as this indicates that you need evidence that this occurs in every situation. In the passage, it only states that shareholders are ‘often’ eligible so Option C cannot be the correct answer.
The price of a share of stock, like that of any other financial asset, equals the present value of the sum of the expected dividends or other cash payments to the shareholders, where future payments are discounted by the interest rate and risks involved. Most of the cash payments to shareholders arise from dividends, which are paid out of earnings and other distributions resulting from the sale or liquidation of assets.
The cash payments available to a shareholder are uncertain and subject to the earnings of the firm. This uncertainty contrasts sharply with cash payments to bondholders, the value of which is fixed by contractual obligation and is paid in a timely manner unless the firm encounters severe financial stress, such as bankruptcy. As a result, the price of stocks normally fluctuates more than the price of bonds.
Over time, most firms pay rising dividends. Dividends increase for two reasons. First, because firms rarely pay out all their earnings as dividends, the difference, called retained earnings, is available to the firm to invest or buy back its shares.
This, in turn, often produces greater future earnings and, hence, higher prospective dividends. Second, a firm’s earnings will rise as the price of its output rises with inflation, as demand for its products grows, and as the firm operates more efficiently. Firms with steadily rising dividends are sought after by investors, who often pay premium prices to own such firms.
Cash payments to shareholders also result from the sale of some of the firm’s assets, liquidation, or a buyout. A firm may sell some of its operations, using the revenues from the sale to provide a lump-sum distribution to shareholders. When a firm sells all its operations and assets, this total liquidation results in a cash distribution after obligations to creditors are satisfied. Finally, if another firm or individual purchases the firm, existing shareholders are often eligible to receive cash distributions.
(Taken from: https://www.econlib.org/library/Enc/StockMarket.html)
Explanation
The correct answer is D. The most important difference in the passage is that firms are ‘contractually obliged’ to pay bondholders regular sums of money, unlike shareholders where the sum of money fluctuates a lot.
Top tip: read the question carefully because although some of the statements in the answer options may be true, they are not the ‘most important’ differences between the two.
The British love affair with consumer magazines has become increasingly tepid since the arrival of online competitors such as YouTube and Facebook, compounded by the new leisure-time lures of Netflix and Amazon.
The magazine business is in trouble, and its problems are summed up by the current top 10 chart of consumer titles that readers buy or subscribe to online. In the first half of 2019, the total circulation of that top 10 was 4.7m – half the 9.4m recorded in the first six months of 2001.Total annual UK consumer magazine sales have fared even worse, plummeting by 60% from just over 1.2bn in 2005 to 481m in 2019, according to the research firm Enders Analysis.
Other titles that have struggled in the last decade include OK!, once the king of celebrity gossip magazines, which has seen sales fall by almost 80% to 122,000 copies. Over the same period Cosmopolitan’s popularity dropped 60%, and the circulation of Heat magazine slumped by three-quarters.
And experts believe it is only going to get worse. “There is a crisis in the industry,” says Douglas McCabe, the chief executive of Enders Analysis. “Given how much circulation has fallen there really haven’t been as many outright closures as you’d think. Some publishers are just hanging on. We would expect to see more closures in the next five years than the previous five.”
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/media/2019/sep/14/between-the-covers-how-the-british-fell-out-of-love-with-magazines
Explanation
The correct answer is A. YouTube and Facebook are listed as online ‘competitors’ in the passage. We can therefore infer that some previous consumers will use these media.
The British love affair with consumer magazines has become increasingly tepid since the arrival of online competitors such as YouTube and Facebook, compounded by the new leisure-time lures of Netflix and Amazon.
The magazine business is in trouble, and its problems are summed up by the current top 10 chart of consumer titles that readers buy or subscribe to online. In the first half of 2019, the total circulation of that top 10 was 4.7m – half the 9.4m recorded in the first six months of 2001.Total annual UK consumer magazine sales have fared even worse, plummeting by 60% from just over 1.2bn in 2005 to 481m in 2019, according to the research firm Enders Analysis.
Other titles that have struggled in the last decade include OK!, once the king of celebrity gossip magazines, which has seen sales fall by almost 80% to 122,000 copies. Over the same period Cosmopolitan’s popularity dropped 60%, and the circulation of Heat magazine slumped by three-quarters.
And experts believe it is only going to get worse. “There is a crisis in the industry,” says Douglas McCabe, the chief executive of Enders Analysis. “Given how much circulation has fallen there really haven’t been as many outright closures as you’d think. Some publishers are just hanging on. We would expect to see more closures in the next five years than the previous five.”
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/media/2019/sep/14/between-the-covers-how-the-british-fell-out-of-love-with-magazines
Explanation
The correct answer is C. From the second paragraph, we can see that the circulation of the top 10 magazines were 4.7m and the total magazine sales were 481 million in 2019.
Timing tip: Try to eliminate potential options where possible to save time in this section. If you have eliminated two options after 30 seconds, it is worth spending some extra time to work out the correct answer. However, if you are on the last question of a passage, consider flagging the question and moving on as rereading the passage will not benefit any future questions.
The British love affair with consumer magazines has become increasingly tepid since the arrival of online competitors such as YouTube and Facebook, compounded by the new leisure-time lures of Netflix and Amazon.
The magazine business is in trouble, and its problems are summed up by the current top 10 chart of consumer titles that readers buy or subscribe to online. In the first half of 2019, the total circulation of that top 10 was 4.7m – half the 9.4m recorded in the first six months of 2001.Total annual UK consumer magazine sales have fared even worse, plummeting by 60% from just over 1.2bn in 2005 to 481m in 2019, according to the research firm Enders Analysis.
Other titles that have struggled in the last decade include OK!, once the king of celebrity gossip magazines, which has seen sales fall by almost 80% to 122,000 copies. Over the same period Cosmopolitan’s popularity dropped 60%, and the circulation of Heat magazine slumped by three-quarters.
And experts believe it is only going to get worse. “There is a crisis in the industry,” says Douglas McCabe, the chief executive of Enders Analysis. “Given how much circulation has fallen there really haven’t been as many outright closures as you’d think. Some publishers are just hanging on. We would expect to see more closures in the next five years than the previous five.”
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/media/2019/sep/14/between-the-covers-how-the-british-fell-out-of-love-with-magazines
Explanation
The correct answer is D. The passage states that ‘more closures’ are expected in the next five years, so we can deduce that option D is the correct answer. Option A is not necessarily true and there is not very strong evidence for this in the text. Option B is incorrect and is actually the other way around judging by the statistics provided (60% vs 75%). Option C most likely refers to OK! Magazine, but fails to recognise that celebrity gossip could come from elsewhere, such as ‘competitors’ YouTube or Facebook.
The British love affair with consumer magazines has become increasingly tepid since the arrival of online competitors such as YouTube and Facebook, compounded by the new leisure-time lures of Netflix and Amazon.
The magazine business is in trouble, and its problems are summed up by the current top 10 chart of consumer titles that readers buy or subscribe to online. In the first half of 2019, the total circulation of that top 10 was 4.7m – half the 9.4m recorded in the first six months of 2001.Total annual UK consumer magazine sales have fared even worse, plummeting by 60% from just over 1.2bn in 2005 to 481m in 2019, according to the research firm Enders Analysis.
Other titles that have struggled in the last decade include OK!, once the king of celebrity gossip magazines, which has seen sales fall by almost 80% to 122,000 copies. Over the same period Cosmopolitan’s popularity dropped 60%, and the circulation of Heat magazine slumped by three-quarters.
And experts believe it is only going to get worse. “There is a crisis in the industry,” says Douglas McCabe, the chief executive of Enders Analysis. “Given how much circulation has fallen there really haven’t been as many outright closures as you’d think. Some publishers are just hanging on. We would expect to see more closures in the next five years than the previous five.”
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/media/2019/sep/14/between-the-covers-how-the-british-fell-out-of-love-with-magazines
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Option C is correct because online resources such as YouTube and Facebook have been listed as competitors, implying that the target audience will spend time on these platforms instead of reading magazines. Option D is incorrect because the closures are due to the collapse of publishers.
People keep making new brain cells throughout their lives, according to a new study carried out on human brains. The idea has been fiercely debated, and it used to be thought we were born with all the brain cells we will ever have. The researchers at the University of Madrid also showed that the number of new brain cells tailed off with age, falling dramatically in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease – giving new ideas for treating the dementia.
Studies on other mammals have found new brains cells forming later in life, but the extent of “neurogenesis” in the human brain is still a source of debate.
The study looked at the brains of 58 deceased people who were aged between 43 and 97. The focus was on the hippocampus – a part of the brain involved in memory and emotion.
The researchers were able to spot immature or “new” neurons in the brains that they examined. In healthy brains there was a “slight decrease” in the amount of this neurogenesis with age. The number of new neurons forming fell from 30,000 per millimetre to 20,000 per millimetre in people at the beginning of Alzheimer’s.
(Adapted from https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/health-47692495)
Explanation
The correct answer is C. While this may be true, there is no evidence of this in the text. The hippocampus was the area of the brain used in the study, however, the results we are shown only state that the number of neurons falls in Alzheimer’s and does not explicitly mention that the hippocampus is involved in Alzheimer’s disease. We are only told that the hippocampus is involved in memory and emotion, but not explicitly in Alzheimer’s disease.
Top tip: Again, the best approach to true/false questions is to look for the keyword and then look for any supporting evidence. The keywords in this question are hippocampus and Alzheimer’s.
People keep making new brain cells throughout their lives, according to a new study carried out on human brains. The idea has been fiercely debated, and it used to be thought we were born with all the brain cells we will ever have. The researchers at the University of Madrid also showed that the number of new brain cells tailed off with age, falling dramatically in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease – giving new ideas for treating the dementia.
Studies on other mammals have found new brains cells forming later in life, but the extent of “neurogenesis” in the human brain is still a source of debate.
The study looked at the brains of 58 deceased people who were aged between 43 and 97. The focus was on the hippocampus – a part of the brain involved in memory and emotion.
The researchers were able to spot immature or “new” neurons in the brains that they examined. In healthy brains there was a “slight decrease” in the amount of this neurogenesis with age. The number of new neurons forming fell from 30,000 per millimetre to 20,000 per millimetre in people at the beginning of Alzheimer’s.
(Adapted from https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/health-47692495)
Explanation
The correct answer is B. This is not true as the passage states that there was a ‘slight decrease’ in neurogenesis with age in healthy brains.

Thu, 04 Aug 2022 19:06:40
I think the correct answer should be C, can't tell because the number of new neuron forming fall from 30k to 20k in people with alzheimer disease. Is it neurogenesis? If is, then we cannot identify if a decrease related to age or alzhemier's disease
People keep making new brain cells throughout their lives, according to a new study carried out on human brains. The idea has been fiercely debated, and it used to be thought we were born with all the brain cells we will ever have. The researchers at the University of Madrid also showed that the number of new brain cells tailed off with age, falling dramatically in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease – giving new ideas for treating the dementia.
Studies on other mammals have found new brains cells forming later in life, but the extent of “neurogenesis” in the human brain is still a source of debate.
The study looked at the brains of 58 deceased people who were aged between 43 and 97. The focus was on the hippocampus – a part of the brain involved in memory and emotion.
The researchers were able to spot immature or “new” neurons in the brains that they examined. In healthy brains there was a “slight decrease” in the amount of this neurogenesis with age. The number of new neurons forming fell from 30,000 per millimetre to 20,000 per millimetre in people at the beginning of Alzheimer’s.
(Adapted from https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/health-47692495)
Explanation
The correct answer is C. The study participants were aged between 43 and 97. There is no evidence in the passage that this statement is true. Although it is likely to be false, there is also no opposing evidence in the passage that this statement is false either, so the correct answer is option C.
People keep making new brain cells throughout their lives, according to a new study carried out on human brains. The idea has been fiercely debated, and it used to be thought we were born with all the brain cells we will ever have. The researchers at the University of Madrid also showed that the number of new brain cells tailed off with age, falling dramatically in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease – giving new ideas for treating the dementia.
Studies on other mammals have found new brains cells forming later in life, but the extent of “neurogenesis” in the human brain is still a source of debate.
The study looked at the brains of 58 deceased people who were aged between 43 and 97. The focus was on the hippocampus – a part of the brain involved in memory and emotion.
The researchers were able to spot immature or “new” neurons in the brains that they examined. In healthy brains there was a “slight decrease” in the amount of this neurogenesis with age. The number of new neurons forming fell from 30,000 per millimetre to 20,000 per millimetre in people at the beginning of Alzheimer’s.
(Adapted from https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/health-47692495)
Explanation
The correct answer is A. In the final paragraph, we can see that the presence of ‘new neurons’ is described as ‘neurogenesis’. We can therefore infer that this statement is correct.
The birth and development of civilisation on the Polynesian islands continues to be a source of fascination for historians, and new evidence shows that Native American visitors may well have been established in the area hundreds of years before European settlers.
After a detailed DNA analysis of the genomes of more than 800 Polynesians and Native Americans, both modern and prehistoric, researchers have found evidence of contact between the two groups as far back as 1200 CE.
The team found signs of genetic admixture that they traced to a single contact event around that time, and it could mean a rethink as to how populations grew and evolved on the islands before European traders and missionaries arrived at the start of the 18th century.
“Our analyses suggest strongly that a single contact event occurred in eastern Polynesia, before the settlement of Rapa Nui, between Polynesian individuals and a Native American group most closely related to the indigenous inhabitants of present-day Colombia,” the researchers explain in their paper.
Interestingly, this is the first genetic study to indicate that the initial point of contact for American travellers was not Easter Island – the closest island to South America – but rather one of the eastern Polynesian archipelagos, such as the South Marquesas.
The same idea was previously put forward by Norwegian explorer and anthropologist Thor Heyerdahl, who famously made the 8,000-kilometre (5,000-mile) journey from Peru to the Tuamotu Islands, in a traditional wooden Inca raft called the Kon-Tiki, to show it could feasibly be done.
(Taken from https://www.sciencealert.com/new-evidence-shows-prehistoric-contact-between-native-americans-and-polynesians )
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This is true because we are told that both groups of people settled on the Polynesian islands.
The birth and development of civilisation on the Polynesian islands continues to be a source of fascination for historians, and new evidence shows that Native American visitors may well have been established in the area hundreds of years before European settlers.
After a detailed DNA analysis of the genomes of more than 800 Polynesians and Native Americans, both modern and prehistoric, researchers have found evidence of contact between the two groups as far back as 1200 CE.
The team found signs of genetic admixture that they traced to a single contact event around that time, and it could mean a rethink as to how populations grew and evolved on the islands before European traders and missionaries arrived at the start of the 18th century.
“Our analyses suggest strongly that a single contact event occurred in eastern Polynesia, before the settlement of Rapa Nui, between Polynesian individuals and a Native American group most closely related to the indigenous inhabitants of present-day Colombia,” the researchers explain in their paper.
Interestingly, this is the first genetic study to indicate that the initial point of contact for American travellers was not Easter Island – the closest island to South America – but rather one of the eastern Polynesian archipelagos, such as the South Marquesas.
The same idea was previously put forward by Norwegian explorer and anthropologist Thor Heyerdahl, who famously made the 8,000-kilometre (5,000-mile) journey from Peru to the Tuamotu Islands, in a traditional wooden Inca raft called the Kon-Tiki, to show it could feasibly be done.
(Taken from https://www.sciencealert.com/new-evidence-shows-prehistoric-contact-between-native-americans-and-polynesians )
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Although evidence of the contact was first mentioned in 1200 C.E., we cannot tell if the statement is true as the contact is said to be ‘around that time’.
Top tip: This is another example of a question which uses Extreme Language. Often, questions which use definitive words such as ‘always’, ‘never’ and ‘exactly’ are designed to catch candidates out.
The birth and development of civilisation on the Polynesian islands continues to be a source of fascination for historians, and new evidence shows that Native American visitors may well have been established in the area hundreds of years before European settlers.
After a detailed DNA analysis of the genomes of more than 800 Polynesians and Native Americans, both modern and prehistoric, researchers have found evidence of contact between the two groups as far back as 1200 CE.
The team found signs of genetic admixture that they traced to a single contact event around that time, and it could mean a rethink as to how populations grew and evolved on the islands before European traders and missionaries arrived at the start of the 18th century.
“Our analyses suggest strongly that a single contact event occurred in eastern Polynesia, before the settlement of Rapa Nui, between Polynesian individuals and a Native American group most closely related to the indigenous inhabitants of present-day Colombia,” the researchers explain in their paper.
Interestingly, this is the first genetic study to indicate that the initial point of contact for American travellers was not Easter Island – the closest island to South America – but rather one of the eastern Polynesian archipelagos, such as the South Marquesas.
The same idea was previously put forward by Norwegian explorer and anthropologist Thor Heyerdahl, who famously made the 8,000-kilometre (5,000-mile) journey from Peru to the Tuamotu Islands, in a traditional wooden Inca raft called the Kon-Tiki, to show it could feasibly be done.
(Taken from https://www.sciencealert.com/new-evidence-shows-prehistoric-contact-between-native-americans-and-polynesians )
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This is true because in the text, we are told that this is the first genetic study to say that the initial point of contact was not at Easter Island. We can therefore deduce that all other studies say that the American travellers first arrived at Easter Island.
The birth and development of civilisation on the Polynesian islands continues to be a source of fascination for historians, and new evidence shows that Native American visitors may well have been established in the area hundreds of years before European settlers.
After a detailed DNA analysis of the genomes of more than 800 Polynesians and Native Americans, both modern and prehistoric, researchers have found evidence of contact between the two groups as far back as 1200 CE.
The team found signs of genetic admixture that they traced to a single contact event around that time, and it could mean a rethink as to how populations grew and evolved on the islands before European traders and missionaries arrived at the start of the 18th century.
“Our analyses suggest strongly that a single contact event occurred in eastern Polynesia, before the settlement of Rapa Nui, between Polynesian individuals and a Native American group most closely related to the indigenous inhabitants of present-day Colombia,” the researchers explain in their paper.
Interestingly, this is the first genetic study to indicate that the initial point of contact for American travellers was not Easter Island – the closest island to South America – but rather one of the eastern Polynesian archipelagos, such as the South Marquesas.
The same idea was previously put forward by Norwegian explorer and anthropologist Thor Heyerdahl, who famously made the 8,000-kilometre (5,000-mile) journey from Peru to the Tuamotu Islands, in a traditional wooden Inca raft called the Kon-Tiki, to show it could feasibly be done.
(Taken from https://www.sciencealert.com/new-evidence-shows-prehistoric-contact-between-native-americans-and-polynesians )
Explanation
The correct answer is C. We do not know if this is true because it is not stated explicitly in the text. While it is true that Thor Heyerdahl replicated the journey in one of these rafts, we are not told in the text that this was true for the first Native American travellers.
Magma is extremely hot liquid and semi-liquid rock located under Earth’s surface. Earth has a layered structure that consists of the inner core, outer core, mantle, and crust. Much of the planet’s mantle consists of magma. This magma can push through holes or cracks in the crust, causing a volcanic eruption. When magma flows or erupts onto Earth’s surface, it is called lava.
Like solid rock, magma is a mixture of minerals. It also contains small amounts of dissolved gases such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulphur. The high temperatures and pressure under Earth’s crust keep magma in its fluid state.
There are three basic types of magma: basaltic, andesitic, and rhyolitic, each of which has a different mineral composition. All types of magma have a significant percentage of silicon dioxide. Basaltic magma is high in iron, magnesium, and calcium but low in potassium and sodium. It ranges in temperature from about 1000oC to 1200oC. Andesitic magma has moderate amounts of these minerals, with a temperature range from about 800oC to 1000oC. Rhyolitic magma is high in potassium and sodium but low in iron, magnesium, and calcium. It occurs in the temperature range of about 650oC to 800oC. Both the temperature and mineral content of magma affect how easily it flows.
The viscosity (thickness) of the magma that erupts from a volcano affects the shape of the volcano. Volcanoes with steep slopes tend to form from very viscous magma, while flatter volcanoes form from magma that flows easily.
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/magma/)
Explanation
The correct answer is B. We are told that magma is called lava when it erupts onto the surface of the Earth, and that a volcanic eruption involves the eruption of magma through holes or cracks. Therefore, we can deduce that a volcanic eruption must include the presence of lava.
Magma is extremely hot liquid and semi-liquid rock located under Earth’s surface. Earth has a layered structure that consists of the inner core, outer core, mantle, and crust. Much of the planet’s mantle consists of magma. This magma can push through holes or cracks in the crust, causing a volcanic eruption. When magma flows or erupts onto Earth’s surface, it is called lava.
Like solid rock, magma is a mixture of minerals. It also contains small amounts of dissolved gases such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulphur. The high temperatures and pressure under Earth’s crust keep magma in its fluid state.
There are three basic types of magma: basaltic, andesitic, and rhyolitic, each of which has a different mineral composition. All types of magma have a significant percentage of silicon dioxide. Basaltic magma is high in iron, magnesium, and calcium but low in potassium and sodium. It ranges in temperature from about 1000oC to 1200oC. Andesitic magma has moderate amounts of these minerals, with a temperature range from about 800oC to 1000oC. Rhyolitic magma is high in potassium and sodium but low in iron, magnesium, and calcium. It occurs in the temperature range of about 650oC to 800oC. Both the temperature and mineral content of magma affect how easily it flows.
The viscosity (thickness) of the magma that erupts from a volcano affects the shape of the volcano. Volcanoes with steep slopes tend to form from very viscous magma, while flatter volcanoes form from magma that flows easily.
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/magma/)
Explanation
The correct answer is A.We are told that ‘all types of magma’ contain silicon dioxide, and we can therefore state that option A is true.
Magma is extremely hot liquid and semi-liquid rock located under Earth’s surface. Earth has a layered structure that consists of the inner core, outer core, mantle, and crust. Much of the planet’s mantle consists of magma. This magma can push through holes or cracks in the crust, causing a volcanic eruption. When magma flows or erupts onto Earth’s surface, it is called lava.
Like solid rock, magma is a mixture of minerals. It also contains small amounts of dissolved gases such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulphur. The high temperatures and pressure under Earth’s crust keep magma in its fluid state.
There are three basic types of magma: basaltic, andesitic, and rhyolitic, each of which has a different mineral composition. All types of magma have a significant percentage of silicon dioxide. Basaltic magma is high in iron, magnesium, and calcium but low in potassium and sodium. It ranges in temperature from about 1000oC to 1200oC. Andesitic magma has moderate amounts of these minerals, with a temperature range from about 800oC to 1000oC. Rhyolitic magma is high in potassium and sodium but low in iron, magnesium, and calcium. It occurs in the temperature range of about 650oC to 800oC. Both the temperature and mineral content of magma affect how easily it flows.
The viscosity (thickness) of the magma that erupts from a volcano affects the shape of the volcano. Volcanoes with steep slopes tend to form from very viscous magma, while flatter volcanoes form from magma that flows easily.
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/magma/)
Explanation
The correct answer is B. We are told that the viscosity of magma affects the slope of the volcano formed. We are also told that the temperature affects the viscosity of magma. Therefore, we can infer that the temperature of the magma will affect the shape of the volcano.
Magma is extremely hot liquid and semi-liquid rock located under Earth’s surface. Earth has a layered structure that consists of the inner core, outer core, mantle, and crust. Much of the planet’s mantle consists of magma. This magma can push through holes or cracks in the crust, causing a volcanic eruption. When magma flows or erupts onto Earth’s surface, it is called lava.
Like solid rock, magma is a mixture of minerals. It also contains small amounts of dissolved gases such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulphur. The high temperatures and pressure under Earth’s crust keep magma in its fluid state.
There are three basic types of magma: basaltic, andesitic, and rhyolitic, each of which has a different mineral composition. All types of magma have a significant percentage of silicon dioxide. Basaltic magma is high in iron, magnesium, and calcium but low in potassium and sodium. It ranges in temperature from about 1000oC to 1200oC. Andesitic magma has moderate amounts of these minerals, with a temperature range from about 800oC to 1000oC. Rhyolitic magma is high in potassium and sodium but low in iron, magnesium, and calcium. It occurs in the temperature range of about 650oC to 800oC. Both the temperature and mineral content of magma affect how easily it flows.
The viscosity (thickness) of the magma that erupts from a volcano affects the shape of the volcano. Volcanoes with steep slopes tend to form from very viscous magma, while flatter volcanoes form from magma that flows easily.
(Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/magma/)
Explanation
The correct answer is C.We can infer that option C is correct because the Rhyolitic magma contains the most sodium and potassium and is the coolest, Andesitic contains moderate amounts and is a moderate temperature, and Basaltic magma contains the least and is hottest. Option A is not necessarily correct because we are not told that this always happens. Option D is incorrect because the magma will contain the same minerals in different proportions.
Your mind can be a powerful healing tool when given the chance. The idea that your brain can convince your body a fake treatment is the real thing — the so-called placebo effect — and thus stimulate healing has been around for millennia. Now science has found that under the right circumstances, a placebo can be just as effective as traditional treatments.
“The placebo effect is more than positive thinking — believing a treatment or procedure will work. It’s about creating a stronger connection between the brain and body and how they work together,” says Professor Ted Kaptchuk of Harvard-affiliated Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center, whose research focuses on the placebo effect.
Placebos won’t lower your cholesterol or shrink a tumor. Instead, placebos work on symptoms modulated by the brain, like the perception of pain. “Placebos may make you feel better, but they will not cure you,” says Kaptchuk. “In addition to pain management, they have been shown to be most effective for conditions like stress-related insomnia, and cancer treatment side effects like fatigue and nausea.”
(Taken from the Harvard Medical School website – https://www.health.harvard.edu/mental-health/the-power-of-the-placebo-effect)
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Option B is in fitting with the information provided in the second and third paragraph, with the resolution of insomnia through training the brain to work with the body. Option C is incorrect according to the passage as the placebo effect is ‘more than positive thinking’.
Common trap: Do not use your own knowledge in the VR section; only rely on the information provided in front of you. Some people would consider option C to be an example of the placebo effect, however, this does not agree with the passage and is therefore incorrect.

Thu, 29 Jun 2023 02:38:21
Your reasoning for 'B' is flawed. As the answer states no longer relying on pills. In the first sentence it states 'fake treatment' as a requirement and the answer of 'B' insinuates that treatment is no longer required. Which going by the passage contradicts that statement.
Your mind can be a powerful healing tool when given the chance. The idea that your brain can convince your body a fake treatment is the real thing — the so-called placebo effect — and thus stimulate healing has been around for millennia. Now science has found that under the right circumstances, a placebo can be just as effective as traditional treatments.
“The placebo effect is more than positive thinking — believing a treatment or procedure will work. It’s about creating a stronger connection between the brain and body and how they work together,” says Professor Ted Kaptchuk of Harvard-affiliated Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center, whose research focuses on the placebo effect.
Placebos won’t lower your cholesterol or shrink a tumor. Instead, placebos work on symptoms modulated by the brain, like the perception of pain. “Placebos may make you feel better, but they will not cure you,” says Kaptchuk. “In addition to pain management, they have been shown to be most effective for conditions like stress-related insomnia, and cancer treatment side effects like fatigue and nausea.”
(Taken from the Harvard Medical School website – https://www.health.harvard.edu/mental-health/the-power-of-the-placebo-effect)
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Some aspects of all the options are correct, however, option C provides the best summary of the information provided in the passage.
Your mind can be a powerful healing tool when given the chance. The idea that your brain can convince your body a fake treatment is the real thing — the so-called placebo effect — and thus stimulate healing has been around for millennia. Now science has found that under the right circumstances, a placebo can be just as effective as traditional treatments.
“The placebo effect is more than positive thinking — believing a treatment or procedure will work. It’s about creating a stronger connection between the brain and body and how they work together,” says Professor Ted Kaptchuk of Harvard-affiliated Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center, whose research focuses on the placebo effect.
Placebos won’t lower your cholesterol or shrink a tumor. Instead, placebos work on symptoms modulated by the brain, like the perception of pain. “Placebos may make you feel better, but they will not cure you,” says Kaptchuk. “In addition to pain management, they have been shown to be most effective for conditions like stress-related insomnia, and cancer treatment side effects like fatigue and nausea.”
(Taken from the Harvard Medical School website – https://www.health.harvard.edu/mental-health/the-power-of-the-placebo-effect)
Explanation
The correct answer is C. In paragraph 3, the passage states that “In addition to pain management, [placebos] have been shown to be most effective for conditions like stress-related insomnia, and cancer treatment side effects like fatigue and nausea’. Therefore, option C is the correct answer as it correctly identifies all three.
Your mind can be a powerful healing tool when given the chance. The idea that your brain can convince your body a fake treatment is the real thing — the so-called placebo effect — and thus stimulate healing has been around for millennia. Now science has found that under the right circumstances, a placebo can be just as effective as traditional treatments.
“The placebo effect is more than positive thinking — believing a treatment or procedure will work. It’s about creating a stronger connection between the brain and body and how they work together,” says Professor Ted Kaptchuk of Harvard-affiliated Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center, whose research focuses on the placebo effect.
Placebos won’t lower your cholesterol or shrink a tumor. Instead, placebos work on symptoms modulated by the brain, like the perception of pain. “Placebos may make you feel better, but they will not cure you,” says Kaptchuk. “In addition to pain management, they have been shown to be most effective for conditions like stress-related insomnia, and cancer treatment side effects like fatigue and nausea.”
(Taken from the Harvard Medical School website – https://www.health.harvard.edu/mental-health/the-power-of-the-placebo-effect)
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This is the option which best fits the information provided in the passage. Option C is not the correct answer because of the word ‘curative’ – the text states that placebos are unable to cure, only relieve brain-modulated symptoms.
Verbal Reasoning Review Screen
Instructions
Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.
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Verbal Reasoning Section
Decision Making Practice Subtest Instructions
In the section of the exam, you will be presented with questions that may refer to text, charts or graphs. Additional information may be presented within the question itself. All questions are standalone and do it share data.
Some questions will have four answer options but only one correct answer; others will require you to respond to five statements by placing a ‘yes’ or ‘no’ answer next to each statement.
It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.
Click the Next (N) button to proceed.
Some books are made into movies.
Some books are made into TV series.
Everyone in City X watches TV series.
Most people in City X watch movies.
Some people in City X read books.
TV series and movie adaptations of books are sometimes faithful.
Explanation
- It is likely that a random person chosen from the City X population both watches TV series and watches movies.
- Yes. Because everyone watches TV series and most watch movies, most people will watch TV series and movies, therefore this is likely.
- Most people in City X watch TV series adaptations of books.
- No. We do not know how many people watch adaptations of books, so this conclusion does not follow.
- It is unlikely that a movie adaptation of a book is faithful.
- No. We know that some adaptations are faithful, but we do not know how likely this is, so this conclusion does not follow.
- Some people in City X watch TV series and read books.
- Yes. Because everyone in City X watches TV series, and some read books, we know that there are some people that do both activities. (Think of this like a Venn diagram, in which reading books is a subset of the larger circle, watching TV series.)
- Some movies and TV series are based on books.
- Yes. Because some books are made into both movies and TV series, it follows that some movies and TV series are adapted from books.
Some athletes are footballers.
Some athletes are parents.
All footballers own football cleats.
All parents have children.
All athletes own sporting kits.
Explanation
- All footballers are athletes.
- No. We know that some athletes are footballers, but we do not know that all footballers are athletes. Be careful not to use external knowledge.
- All footballers own sporting kits.
- No. All athletes own sporting kits. Because we don’t know that all footballers are athletes, we cannot conclude that all footballers own sporting kits.
- Some athletes have children.
- Yes. Because some athletes are parents and all parents have children, some athletes have children.
- Some footballers are parents.
- No. We know that some athletes are parents, however we do not know if any of them are also footballers.
- Some parents own football cleats.
- No. We know that all footballers own football cleats, but we do not know if any parents are footballers. We also know that some athletes are footballers, but we do not specifically know that any of these footballers are parents. Therefore, it does not follow that some parents own football cleats.
Jesse and Wade are playing a game and in order to win the game, they must select a gold token out of a bag. The bag contains 8 bronze tokens, 5 silver tokens, 10 stones, and 2 gold tokens. Objects from the bag are chosen and not replaced. Jesse and Wade take turns drawing from the bag.
Explanation
The correct answer is B. There are 25 objects in the bag initially. Jesse selects one token, leaving 24 objects remaining in the bag. He does not win, so he does not select one of the gold tokens, which means that there are still 2 gold tokens amongst the 24 remaining objects. The probability that Wade will win, therefore, is 2/24 or 1/12.
Mrs. Blake, Dr. Joa, Mr. Litvak, and Dr. Finley teach at the same secondary school. Each teach one of the following subjects: Spanish, music theory, mathematics, and history, and teach one of the following year levels: 8, 9, 10, 11.
The music theory teacher teaches children younger than the history teacher’s students, but older than the mathematics teacher’s students.
Joa teaches Spanish to Year 10 students.
Blake teaches the oldest students.
Litvak teaches the youngest students.
Explanation
The correct answer is A. From the first point, we know that the mathematics teacher teaches younger than the music theory teacher, who teaches younger than the history teacher. We’re told that Spanish is taught to year 10 students, so the order of subjects is mathematics (year 8), music theory (year 9), Spanish (year 10), and history (year 11). Dr. Joa teaches Spanish year 10 (from point 2), Mrs. Blake teaches year 11 history (from point 3), and Mr. Litvak teaches year 8 mathematics (from point 4), which means Dr. Finley must teach year 9 music theory. Note that whenever we are given all of the information about any one person, it represents a good starting point: here it is Dr. Joa teaching Spanish to Year 10 students. A table can help represent all the information.
Teacher |
Year |
Subject |
Mr. Litvak |
8 |
Mathematics |
Dr. Finley |
9 |
Music theory |
Dr. Joa |
10 |
Spanish |
Mrs. Blake |
11 |
History |
Should secondary schools provide all students with laptops in an attempt to help financially disadvantaged students to perform as well as their peers?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. The key bits of information in this question are providing laptops to all students and the effect this will have on helping the academic performance of financially disadvantaged students. A is incorrect because it discusses the cost of implementation, without addressing the key information. B is incorrect because it is speculative. D is incorrect because it doesn’t discuss how providing students with laptops will help to bridge this gap in academic performance. C is correct because it talks about the importance of having a laptop with regards to tackling schoolwork better.

Thu, 29 Jun 2023 02:42:49
Does not option 'D' cover more of the overall question? It provides evidence, gap in performance of those financially disadvantage, and peers. Whereas 'C' only covers laptops.
Should grocery stores stop the sale of alcohol in order to reduce rates of underage drinking?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. A is incorrect because it is speculative. B is incorrect because the statement here is not backed by evidence. D is incorrect because it focuses on the effect on adults who want to drink as opposed to people below the age of 18, which is what the question asks about. C is correct because it cites research that shows that grocery stores are not the main avenue that underage drinkers get alcohol from, implying that stopping their sale in grocery stores would do little to reduce rates of underage drinking.
Juliette is unsure what kind of party to have for her birthday party and asks her friends to help her decide. Each of her friends votes for the parties they like the sound of, and can select more than one option, if they would like.
20 like the idea of a pool party.
5 like the idea of going to the cinema.
12 like the idea of going to the planetarium.
No one likes just the cinema and the pool party.
6 people like exactly two options.
Only 1 person likes the cinema and the planetarium only.
2 people like all 3.
Explanation
The correct answer is C. The best way to present the information is in a Venn diagram. We are told that 2 people like all 3 options, so put a 2 in the centre. No one likes a pool party and cinema only, so there should be 0 between pool and cinema. 6 people like exactly 2 options, of which 0 like pool/cinema, and 1 likes cinema/planetarium, meaning that 5 people like pool/planetarium. Filling these numbers in, we can calculate the number of people that like only like one of the parties. There are 13 people that like pool only (20 – 5 – 2 – 0), 2 that like the cinema party only (5 – 2 – 1 – 0), and 4 that like the planetarium party only (12 – 5 – 2 – 1). Adding these together, we get 19 (13 + 2 + 4).
All beef is meat. All meat, vegetables, and strawberries are foods. Meats, vegetables, and strawberries are not related with each other.
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Meat, vegetables, beef, and strawberries would all be contained within a larger circle representing food. All beef is meat; therefore, the beef circle sits inside the meat circle. Vegetables and strawberries are foods, so they sit in the largest circle, but are unrelated to meat, beef, or each other, so they do not overlap any other circles. Thus, D is the correct answer.
Eliza is deciding which train to take home from her office. Train A arrives on time 70% of the time and has service disruptions 29 out of 50 times it runs. Train B is late 1/10 of the time and has no service disruptions on half of its journeys.
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Jot down the information you know into a table using the ‘same, simple, positive’ rule. Make sure information is written down in the same and most simple format and consider what the question is asking. Here, we are asked to consider only trains arriving on time, and not having service disruptions. Note that for Train A, we are told the probability of having service disruptions, instead of not having service disruptions (so subtract this probability from 1). For Train B, we are told the probability of the train arriving late instead of arriving on time (so subtract this probability from 1).
Train A |
Train B |
P(arrival on time) = 70% |
P(arrival on time) = 1 – (1/10) = 9/10 = 90% |
P(no service disruptions) = 1 – (29/50) = 21/50 = 42% |
P(no service disruptions) = 1/2 = 50% |
Train B arrives on time more frequently (90 > 70) and has more trains without service disruptions (50 > 42), so Eliza should take Train B. This eliminates C and D. B is incorrect because it says that Train B is on time and has no service disruptions more often than not; this means that both of these have to be probabilities > 50%. Since the likelihood of having service disruptions is 1/2, this is equal to 50% and not greater, which means that B is incorrect.
No university students wear uniforms.
Some students wear uniforms.
All boys’ uniforms contain a blazer.
All girls’ uniforms contain a skirt.
All uniforms consist of clothing and most also comprise shoes.
Explanation
- All students that are not in university wear uniforms.
- No. We are told that some students wear uniforms, but not who these students are, so this conclusion does not follow.
- Some uniforms contain clothing and shoes.
- Yes. All uniforms contain clothing, and most contain shoes, therefore this conclusion follows.
- Girls do not wear blazers as part of their uniform.
- No. We are told that boys’ uniforms contain a blazer, but we are not told that girls do not wear a blazer.
- If a boy is a student at university, he does not wear a blazer.
- No. We know that no university students wear uniforms, but we are not told what they do wear, therefore some university students may wear blazers.
- If a student is wearing a uniform, she must not be in university.
- Yes. We are told that no university students wear uniforms, so this conclusion follows.
Students in Year 9 were asked about ice cream flavours they liked, and the results are depicted below. All students like at least one of the listed flavours.
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Note that the question asks about which of the following is not true, so be sure to read carefully! A is incorrect, because this is true based on the Venn diagram – the triangle sits entirely between the overlapping regions of the circle and rectangle, therefore everyone that liked caramel (triangle) also liked both vanilla (circle) and chocolate (rectangle). B is incorrect because this is also true – the number of people that like hazelnut ice cream (star) is 2 + 3 = 5, and the number of people that like only vanilla is 5 (part of the circle that does not overlap with any other shapes). C is incorrect because this is also true – if we add up all the numbers in the Venn diagram, we get 36, the total number of students in the class. We know encompasses all students because every student in the year likes at least one of these ice cream flavours, so there are no students that are not represented amongst the shapes. The number of people that like only chocolate (part of the rectangle that does not overlap with any other shapes) is 8 and the number of people that like only strawberry (part of the heart that does not overlap with any other shapes) is 1; 8 + 1 = 9 and 9 is 1/4 of 36, so this statement is true. D is the correct answer because this statement is false. There are 25 students that like chocolate ice cream (3 + 8 + 11 + 3) and 22 students that like vanilla ice cream (5 + 3 + 11 + 3), therefore 3 more students like chocolate ice cream than vanilla ice cream.
A choir occupies three rows of risers, with the bottom-most riser containing 5 singers, the middle-most riser containing 6 singers, and the top-most riser containing 7 singers. The choir is arranged in height order, with the tallest singer in position A (top-left) and the shortest in position R (bottom-right).
Cleopatra is not one of the 5 tallest singers nor one of the 5 shortest.
Cleopatra is adjacent to exactly two other singers.
Cleopatra has exactly three people in between her, and row-mate, Dean.
Dean is shorter than Cleopatra.
Explanation
The correct answer is C. From point one, we know that Cleopatra is not A, B, C, D, E, N, O, P, Q or R. This leaves F, G, H, I, J, K, L, and M. From point two, we know that she cannot stand at the end of one of the rows as she is beside two singers, so we can eliminate G, H (answer choice B), and M. This leaves us with F, I, J, K, and L. Since Cleopatra and Dean are in the same row and Dean is shorter, this means that Cleopatra’s letter is earlier than Dean’s, or Dean after Cleopatra. This means that Cleopatra and Dean must both be on the second row, as there must be three people in between Cleopatra and Dean and this is not feasible if Cleopatra is in F as it would push Dean to the next row, and we know they are row-mates. This eliminates F. If Cleopatra were in J, K, or L, Dean could not be three places afterward without being in the next row. This means Cleopatra must be in position I (with Dean in position M).
Tropical cyclones, also known as hurricanes, are rotating storms with a lower-pressure centre or eye, and high-velocity winds and storm outside of this centre. Tropical cyclones are called such because they originate in tropical sea areas, and wind moves in a circular motion. Coastal regions are most vulnerable to tropical cyclones, as they are closest to the water wherein these storms originate. The eye of the tropical cyclone generally has a clear, cloudless sky, but violent waters. Hurricanes occur in the Atlantic and northeast Pacific Ocean, and typhoons occur in the northwest Pacific Ocean, Indian Ocean, or south Pacific Ocean.
Explanation
-
- Hurricanes are tropical cyclones.
- Yes. We are told that tropical cyclones are also known as hurricanes, which means that hurricanes can be called be tropical cyclones.
- Tropical cyclones often affect coastal regions.
- No. We are told that coastal regions are most vulnerable to tropical cyclones, but we do not know how often tropical cyclones do in fact affect coastal regions as compared with any other part of the world.
- Typhoons are tropical cyclones.
- No. There is no specific information stating a relationship between typhoons and tropical cyclones, so this conclusion does not follow.
- Most eyes of tropical cyclones are neither cloudy nor windy.
- No. ‘The eye of the tropical cyclone generally has a clear, cloudless sky’ which means that most eyes of tropical cyclones are not cloudy, however we are not told about how windy they are.
- If a storm occurs in the northeast Pacific Ocean, it must be a hurricane.
- No. There might be other kinds of storms that occur in this particular region. Just because hurricanes do occur here, does not mean that they are the only kind of storms that occur here.
- Hurricanes are tropical cyclones.
Echidnas are animals that belong to the family Tachyglossidae and are egg-laying mammals.
Echidnas descended from a platypus-like monotreme which was aquatic, though echidnas have adapted to live on land.
Echidnas are named as such because Echidna was a creature in Greek mythology containing both mammalian and reptilian characteristics.
Echidnas are also called spiny anteaters, owing to their diet of ants and spine-containing appearance.
Even the tongues of echidnas are spiked, allowing them to more easily catch prey.
Explanation
-
- Egureions are animals that belong to the family Tachyglossidae, therefore they are egg-laying mammals.
- No. While echidnas belong to this family and lay eggs, we do not know if this is a common characteristic of members of this family, so this conclusion does not follow.
- Some members of the family Tachyglossidae are carnivorous.
- Yes. We are told that the echidna consumes ants and is therefore carnivorous. We are also told that echidnas are in the family Tachyglossidae, so this follows.
- Some anteaters are not spiny.
- No. We are only told that echidnas are called spiny anteaters, we are given no information about non-spiny anteaters.
- The platypus lives in the water and is aquatic.
- No. We are told that a platypus-like animal (the ancestor of the echidna) was aquatic, but we do not know that the platypus is actually aquatic.
- All spiny anteaters have spiky tongues.
- Yes. We are told that the tongues of echidnas (also called spiny anteaters) are spiked to aid in catching prey, so this conclusion follows.
- Egureions are animals that belong to the family Tachyglossidae, therefore they are egg-laying mammals.

Thu, 29 Jun 2023 02:47:57
Should not the final answer be 'No'? Based on your reasoning for the third answer, we cannot assume that Echidna's are the only spiny ant eaters.
At a certain company, employees have a number of skills which will be discussed at their performance review. Those with three or more skills will be shortlisted for a promotion. Each skill is represented by a different shape, and no one at the company has none of the charted skills.
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Identify any regions that have three or more overlapping shapes. This is 31 (pentagon, oval, rectangle) + 4 (heart, pentagon, oval, rectangle) + 9 (heart, oval, rectangle) + 17 (pentagon, triangle, oval) + 11 (heart, pentagon, oval) = 72. C is the correct answer. Answer choice D is incorrect because it does not take into account the region that has more than 3 overlapping shapes (4). Answer choice B is incorrect because it adds 14 (pentagon and oval only). Answer choice A is incorrect because it does not include 9 (heart, oval, rectangle).
Mikaela is studying the absorption spectra of various photosynthetic pigments, depicted in the graph below. Spikes on the graph correlate to when certain photosynthetic pigments are more likely to absorb a particular kind of light. She also reads about the wavelengths of light that correlate to different colours on the visible light spectrum.
Colour |
Wavelength (nm) |
Violet |
400 – 435 |
Blue |
435 – 500 |
Green |
500 – 570 |
Yellow |
570 – 600 |
Orange |
600 – 630 |
Red |
630 – 700 |
Explanation
- At their maximum level of absorption, chlorophyll b absorbs the highest percentage of light.
- Yes. The highest peak on this graph, with respect to the y-axis of percentage of light absorbed, is given by chlorophyll b (lightest grey line). This conclusion follows.
- Red light has wavelengths approximately 200 mm longer than blue light.
- No. Red light has wavelengths of approximately 200 nm longer than blue light, as opposed to mm. Be mindful of units.
- Chlorophylls a and b each absorb two different colours of light.
- Yes. Chlorophyll a (dark grey line) has two spikes as does chlorophyll b (light grey line). We are told that spikes correlate to when photosynthetic pigments absorb different particular kinds of light.
- If one of these photosynthetic pigments is absorbing green light, it is the carotenoids.
- Yes. By looking at the table, we know that green light occurs in the range 500-570 nm, so look for any spikes in this area. The carotenoids’ spike exists partially in this range, and the chlorophylls’ spikes do not exist in this range. So, if one of these pigments is absorbing green light, it is indeed the carotenoids.
- Chlorophyll b absorbs a higher percentage of red light than it does blue light.
- No. The red range correlates to 630-700 nm, at which point there is a moderate spike in the line for chlorophyll b. The blue range correlates to 435-500 nm, at which point there is a large spike in the line for chlorophyll b. Therefore, it can be said that chlorophyll b absorbs a higher percentage of blue light than red light, so the conclusion does not follow.
Ruby is playing a game at a fair and is spinning a large wheel in order to win a prize. The wheel has 20 segments, of which 10 amount to no prize, 6 to a small cash prize, 2 to more game tokens, 1 to a small stuffed toy, and 1 to a large stuffed toy. Ruby wants to win the large stuffed toy and spins the wheel twice.
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Ruby has an equal probability of landing on the segment offering a large stuffed toy on each of her spins. This is because the wheel remains unchanged in between spins; no segments are taken away. She had a 1/20 chance of winning a large stuffed toy on her first spin and still has a 1/20 chance of winning a large stuffed toy on her second spin.
Some animals have fur.
All cats but one species have fur.
All cats are animals.
All bears have thick fur.
Most bears have brown fur, and the rest have black fur.
Explanation
- If something has fur, it is an animal.
- No. We are told that some animals have fur, but we do not know that all fur-containing things are animals.
- Not all fur is thick.
- No. We know that all bears have thick fur, but we do not know that any fur is not thick.
- Most cats have fur.
- No. Without knowing how many of each species of cat there are, how do you know that most cats have fur? For example, if the non-furred species were to comprise 99% of the cat population, then most cats do NOT have fur.
- Some thick fur is black.
- Yes. Some bears have black fur, and all bears have thick fur, so it follows that some thick fur is black.
- Bears are animals.
- No. We are not told explicitly told that bears are animals. We know that they have fur and that some animals have fur, but this statement in particular cannot be concluded from the given information.
All movies have both audio and video.
All songs have audio.
Audio can be heard, and video can be seen.
Headphones can be used to hear.
Headphones cannot be used to see.
Explanation
- Headphones can be used to hear songs.
- Yes. Headphones can be used to hear, and audio can be heard, and all songs have audio. Therefore, this conclusion does follow.
- Headphones can be used to see movies.
- No. Headphones cannot be used to see, therefore headphones cannot be used to see movies.
- No songs can be seen.
- No. We know that all songs have audio (and can therefore be heard), but we do not know if any songs have video (and can therefore be seen). So, this conclusion does not follow.
- Movies can be heard and seen.
- Yes. All movies have both audio and video, and therefore can be heard and seen.
- Audio cannot be seen.
- No. We know that audio can be heard, but we do not know whether audio can be seen from the given information. So, this conclusion does not follow.

Sun, 08 Aug 2021 14:33:34
this is stupid
Binge-watching refers to watching televised content for a continuous period of time.
It generally refers to watching the same TV show for a long time.
In a 2014 survey conducted by Netflix of its users, 73% of people define binge-watching as watching 2-6 episodes of the same TV show in a single setting.
According to the same survey, 61% binge-watch regularly, while 37% prefer to space out their TV-watching content.
With regards to the experience that binge-watching creates, most viewers say that binge-watching makes shows both more entertaining and more immersive.
Explanation
- 61% of Netflix users binge-watch on a regular basis.
- No. We are told that this statistic refers to a particular study in 2014, and not all Netflix users.
- Multiple definitions of binge-watching exist.
- Yes. We know that 73% of those surveyed agree on one definition of binge-watching, which means that at least one other definition exists.
- 2% of surveyed people occasionally binge-watch content.
- No. 61% binge-watch regularly while 37% do not binge-watch. This leaves 2%, but we are not told what their reply to the survey was, so we cannot assume that they ‘occasionally binge-watch content.’ This conclusion does not follow based on the given information.
- If someone is binge-watching, they are watching the same TV show for an extended period of time.
- No. This is ‘generally’ what is meant by the term binge-watching, however we cannot say this is always true for anyone who is binge-watching.
- Over 50% of people feel that binge-watching makes a show more immersive.
- Yes. ‘Most viewers say that binge-watching makes shows … more immersive.’ Most refers to > 50%, so this conclusion follows.
Should rehabilitation be tried on all prisoners in order to minimise rates of reoffending?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. The key bits of information in this question are ‘rehabilitation’ and ‘rates of reoffending.’ The question does not ask particular type of prisoner, and specifically says ‘all prisoners,’ so whilst answer choice B makes sense, is too specific to be the best answer to this question. C is incorrect because it relates rehabilitation to cost as opposed to the rate of reoffending. D may present a valid point, but not discuss anything in particular relating rehabilitation to minimally affecting reoffending rates, therefore is not a strong argument against rehabilitation. A discusses one possible outcome from rehabilitation and how it minimises rates of reoffending (disincentivising, job procurement), and therefore is the strongest argument.

Thu, 04 Aug 2022 19:14:24
is vocational training a type of rehab?
A class of 40 students go on a trip to France and stay at a hotel. In this class, 8 friends want to stay on the same floor. The class has rooms on 6 floors of a hotel, and there are 5 rooms on each floor. Circles represent double rooms, which can hold up to 2 people, triangles represent hotel rooms occupied by other guests, stars represent teacher chaperones on the trip, and rectangles represent triple rooms, which can hold up to 3 people.
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Since students cannot stay in the star or triangles, we can ignore these shapes for now. Because up to 2 students can stay in circle rooms, and up to 3 students can stay in rectangle rooms, we just need to find a floor that has a minimum of 8 free spaces – this occurs on the first floor which has 9 free spaces (2 + 2 + 0 + 3 + 2). B is incorrect because so long as a 9th student stays on the first floor along with the 8 friends, there is sufficient space for all 40 students amongst the available rooms. A is incorrect because the students can fit on the first floor. D is incorrect because the fourth floor has space for only 7 students, and not 8.
The graph below shows the incidence of congenital heart disease (CHD) in newborns up to 1 year of age.
Explanation
- The number of live births increases consistently from 2004-2012.
- No. At the bottom of the graph, we are given the number of live births that correlate to each year. From 2004-2005, the number of live births decreases from 43349 to 37961, so this conclusion does not follow.
- In 2005, the 1-month incidence of CHD accounts for more than half of the total CHD cases in newborns up to 1 year of age.
- Yes. The 1-month incidence of CHD (dashed/dotted line) is at 4 in 2005 and the 1-year incidence (solid line) is at 7.38 in 2005. 4 is more than half of 7.38, so this conclusion follows.
- The incidence of CHD within the first year of life nearly doubles from 2004 to 2005.
- Yes. It starts at 3.74 and increases to 7.38, which is a 1.97x increase, or nearly double. This conclusion follows.
- Most of the diagnoses of CHD within the first year of life in the years 2009 – 2012 occur within the first month.
- Yes. The 1-month incidence is nearly at the level of the 1-year incidence in each of these years, so the conclusion follows.
- If trends continue, rate of incidence of CHD would be expected to increase in 2013.
- No. Some years, the rate of incidence is lower than the previous year, so this is not true.

Sun, 24 Jul 2022 15:31:59
Technically, you have to multiply the incidence rate (on the Y-axis) with the actual live births to obtain the actual incidence. But I guess in a pre-med school exam, the epidemiological concepts are not so important?

Thu, 29 Jun 2023 02:56:59
Further for the last answer you have to look at the trend over time overall and not just cherry pick data to apply to provide you an answer.
Should people on public transport be required to wear headphones when playing videos or music to minimise disturbance to other passengers?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. The key bits of information here are the requirement of wearing headphones and minimising disturbance to other passengers. Answer choice D discusses the role of wearing headphones in relation to disturbing other passengers, and explains why this is not the best strategy. A mainly discusses portability, which is not the key information the question asks about. B discusses personal liberties without addressing disturbance to other passengers, so is not relevant enough. C talks about passenger safety rather than disturbance to passengers, so this is not relevant enough to be the correct answer.
Should over-the-counter medications be charged at the same rate as current NHS prescription medications in order to increase affordability of all medications for patients?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. The key information in this question is over-the-counter medication vs. NHS prescription medications, as regards patients’ ability to afford these medications. A is the strongest answer because it discusses that making both types of medication the same price means patients have to pay more than they currently are, which decreases affordability of medication. B is incorrect because it is more speculative than the rest of the answer choices without evidence to back this up. C is incorrect because this answer choice focuses on the cost to the NHS as opposed to patients, as the question asks. D is incorrect because it discusses the ethics of the question, as opposed to the affordability aspect, as is detailed in the question.
Henry is deciding on a player for his football team. Liam runs fast during 76% of the time, but does not score goals in 12/16 of his matches. Arjun runs fast 19 out of 25 games, and scores goals in 1 out of every 3 matches he plays.
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Jot down the information you know into a table using the ‘same, simple, positive’ rule. Enter information in same and most simple format and keep in mind what the question is asking. Here, we are asked to consider only how often they run fast and how often they score goals.
Liam |
Arjun |
P(run fast) = 76% |
P(run fast) = 19/25 = 76% |
P(score goal) = 1 – (12/16) = 4/16 = 1/4 |
P(score goal) = 1/3 |
Liam and Arjun both run fast with the same frequency, so in order to decide who should be on the football team, look at the likelihood of scoring a goal. Liam scores goals in 1/4 of the matches he plays whilst Arjun scores in 1/3 of the matches he plays, so yes, Henry should choose Arjun for his football team. A is the correct answer. B is incorrect because Arjun does not run fast more frequently than Liam. C is incorrect because the answer choice says Arjun should not be chosen for the football team. D is incorrect because Liam neither runs fast more frequently than Arjun nor scores more goals frequently than Arjun.
Dmitri is a fashion designer and wants to make a 50-piece collection. He makes a Venn diagram to help him visualise the colours of fabrics he will need to purchase from the store. The rectangle represents black, the oval represents white, the pentagon represents indigo, the triangle represents lilac, and the heart represents silver. The X refers to the same number.
Explanation
The correct answer is C. First, determine what information the question is asking – here it is the number of pieces that contain indigo (pentagon) or white (oval), but not both. Since there is no overlap between these shapes, we just need to add the number of pieces that belong to each of these shapes, however in order to do so, we need to solve for X. There are 50 pieces in the collection. 1 + 5 + 14 + 3 + 2 + 6 + 10 + 1 + x + x = 50, so 42 + 2x = 50, so 2x = 8, so x = 4. This means that the number of pieces that contain white (1 + 5 + 14 = 20) plus the number of pieces that contain indigo (1 + 6 + 4 = 11) is equal to 31, or answer choice C.
Minnie, Tanya, Emilia, Jacob, and Rufus all take part in a Model United Nations conference at their school. Each represents a different country, non-respectively: Malaysia, Tanzania, Estonia, Jordan, and Romania.
Minnie and Tanya do not represent Jordan.
Rufus and Emilia represent either Estonia or Malaysia.
Tanya does not represent Tanzania.
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Make a table and fill in information as you go along. Minnie and Tanya do not represent Jordan, so put X’s in Jordan for both of them. Rufus and Emilia represent either Estonia or Malaysia, which means they cannot represent Tanzania, Malaysia, or Jordan. It also means none of the rest can represent Estonia or Malaysia. Tanya does not represent Tanzania. From the table, we can see that Minnie must represent Tanzania, Tanya must represent Romania, and Jacob must represent Jordan. Emilia and Rufus represent either of Estonia or Malaysia, but we do not know who represents which. Therefore, A is the correct answer. B and C cannot be said with certainty (though both are possible), and D is not correct as Jacob does in fact represent Jordan.
|
Malaysia |
Tanzania |
Estonia |
Jordan |
Romania |
Minnie |
X |
✓ |
X |
X |
X |
Tanya |
X |
X |
X |
X |
✓ |
Emilia |
? |
X |
? |
X |
X |
Jacob |
X |
X |
X |
✓ |
X |
Rufus |
? |
X |
? |
X |
X |
There are 50 chocolate bars in the store of which 10 contain nuts, 8 contain peanut butter, and 3 contain both nuts and peanut butter. They are told that a golden ticket is in one of these chocolate bars. The store manager knows that the golden ticket is inside one of the nut-free (free of nuts or peanut butter) bars. Suki and Charlie are both allergic to nuts and therefore cannot have nuts or peanut butter.
Explanation
The correct answer is B. By drawing a Venn diagram as shown below, we can see that there are initially 35 nut-free chocolate bars. After Suki takes one, there are 34 nut-free chocolate bars. Since 1 of these 34 bars has the Golden Ticket, Charlie has a 1/34 chance.
Decision Making Review Screen
Instructions
Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.
The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:
1. Review all of your questions and answers.
2. Review questions that are incomplete.
3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)
You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.
Decision Making Section
Quantitative Reasoning Practice Subtest Instructions
In the section of the exam, you will be presented with questions that may refer to charts or graphs containing data. Additional information may also be found within the question itself. Most questions will be shown as sets of four questions each connected to the same data. There are some questions that standalone and do not share data. Each questions has five answers options. Your task is to choose the best option.
An onscreen calculator is available to assist you with this section – you can access this by clicking on the button at the top left of the screen.
It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.
Click the Next (N) button to proceed.
The people of Polsville vote for four major political parties every four years, which are referred to as A, B, C and D. The voting habits of Polsville over a 20-year period is shown below.
Time period |
% votes for A | % votes for B | % votes for C | % votes for D |
2000-2004 | 52 | 20 | 16 |
12 |
2004-2008 |
49 | 23 | 15 | 13 |
2008-2012 | 51 | 22 | 20 |
7 |
2012-2016 |
46 | 24 | 14 | 16 |
2016-2020 | 45 | 23 | 19 |
13 |
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
- Calculate the mean percentage of people voting for A:
52 + 49 + 51 + 46 + 45 = 243
243/5 = 48.6%
- Calculate the mean percentage of people voting for B:
20 + 23 + 22 + 24 + 23 = 112
112/5 = 22.4%
- Calculate the percentage ‘difference’ in A compared to B:
48.6/22.4 = 2.17
So the proportion of people voting for A is 117% higher on average.
Timing tip: although the question asks for the percentage difference between the mean values, we know that to get to the mean values we divide by the same factor of 5. Therefore, a shortcut would be to calculate the percentage difference between the sum % votes (243 and 112), which would lead you to the same answer.

Wed, 03 Aug 2022 08:21:27
the wrong option
The people of Polsville vote for four major political parties every four years, which are referred to as A, B, C and D. The voting habits of Polsville over a 20-year period is shown below.
Time period |
% votes for A |
% votes for B |
% votes for C |
% votes for D |
2000-2004 |
52 |
20 |
16 |
12 |
2004-2008 |
49 |
23 |
15 |
13 |
2008-2012 |
51 |
22 |
20 |
7 |
2012-2016 |
46 |
24 |
14 |
16 |
2016-2020 |
45 |
23 |
19 |
13 |
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
- Calculate the percentage of people voting for D in 1996-2000:
12/3 = 4%
- Calculate this as a percentage of the voting population:
0.04 x 66 = 2.64
Top tip: use the multiplier method to work out percentages faster. For example, to calculate 4% of 66, work out the multiplier – in this case 0.04.

Thu, 29 Jun 2023 03:00:26
I have to admit that this question caught me up. However, we are told in the UCAT that you can never have 'part' of a human. So the answer should be '2'. As you can only have 0.64 of a person when they have been turned into a zombie.
The people of Polsville vote for four major political parties every four years, which are referred to as A, B, C and D. The voting habits of Polsville over a 20-year period is shown below.
Time period |
% votes for A |
% votes for B |
% votes for C |
% votes for D |
2000-2004 |
52 |
20 |
16 |
12 |
2004-2008 |
49 |
23 |
15 |
13 |
2008-2012 |
51 |
22 |
20 |
7 |
2012-2016 |
46 |
24 |
14 |
16 |
2016-2020 |
45 |
23 |
19 |
13 |
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
- Work out the expected votes for A:
0.8 x 45 = 36
- Devise an equation for the voting habits:
Let the percentage of votes for B or C = p.
Since D will have 9% fewer votes than B/C, D = 0.91p.
36 + 2p + 0.91p = 100
2.91p = 64
p = 64/2.91
p = 21.99
- Work out the percentage of Polsville voting for D:
D= 0.91p
0.91 x 21.99 = 20.01 so
20% to the nearest whole number.
Timing tip: when you calculate percentages using decimals less than 1, omit the 0. For example, instead of 0.91 x 21.99, type .91 x 21.99. It may only save a second or two, but every second counts!

Mon, 02 May 2022 14:26:46
It says "D will have 9% fewer votes than B or C" so it should be represented by "p-9" not "0.91p".

Mon, 23 Jan 2023 12:11:47
I agree with anonymous

Thu, 29 Jun 2023 03:02:24
As per previous posters
The people of Polsville vote for four major political parties every four years, which are referred to as A, B, C and D. The voting habits of Polsville over a 20-year period is shown below.
Time period |
% votes for A |
% votes for B |
% votes for C |
% votes for D |
2000-2004 |
52 |
20 |
16 |
12 |
2004-2008 |
49 |
23 |
15 |
13 |
2008-2012 |
51 |
22 |
20 |
7 |
2012-2016 |
46 |
24 |
14 |
16 |
2016-2020 |
45 |
23 |
19 |
13 |
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
- Work out the percentage of the population who did vote for C:
100-49 = 51
0.51 x 20 = 10.2%
- Subtract this from the whole population:
100 – 10.2 = 89.8%
Common trap: this question is worded in a slightly misleading manner: it is actually relatively simple. You may be tempted to only consider the population who did not vote, which would lead you to answer option D, but you should include both the voters and non-voters alike.

Wed, 17 Aug 2022 14:58:46
where did the 20 come from?
Photo Central is a company that sells photos. It is trialling a new set of photo packages, which include a bundle with different types of photos and frames. These deals are shown below. Delivery costs apply within a 15-mile radius of the store. Each additional mile will incur an extra 5% on the delivery fee. Multiple package deliveries will incur a delivery charge equal to the sum of the total delivery charges; for example, buying packages 1 and 3 would incur a delivery charge of £7.50.
Price List
Photo package |
Price (£) |
Description |
Delivery (£) |
1 |
15 |
– Six small photos – Six small frames included |
3.00 |
2 |
25 |
– Six small photos and one medium photo – Six small frames, one medium frame |
3.50 |
3 |
30 |
– Two medium photos – Two medium frames |
4.50 |
4 |
45 |
– Six small photos – Two medium photos – Six small frames, two medium frames |
5.50 |
5 |
65 |
– Two medium photos – Two large photos – Two medium frames, two large frames |
7.50 |
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
- Work out the cost for photo package 1:
15 + 3 = 18
- Work out the cost for photo package 4:
45 + 5.50 = 50.50
- Work out the total Janet paid:
18 + 50.50 = £68.50
Photo Central is a company that sells photos. It is trialling a new set of photo packages, which include a bundle with different types of photos and frames. These deals are shown below. Delivery costs apply within a 15-mile radius of the store. Each additional mile will incur an extra 5% on the delivery fee. Multiple package deliveries will incur a delivery charge equal to the sum of the total delivery charges; for example, buying packages 1 and 3 would incur a delivery charge of £7.50.
Price List
Photo package |
Price (£) |
Description |
Delivery (£) |
1 |
15 |
– Six small photos – Six small frames included |
3.00 |
2 |
25 |
– Six small photos and one medium photo – Six small frames, one medium frame |
3.50 |
3 |
30 |
– Two medium photos – Two medium frames |
4.50 |
4 |
45 |
– Six small photos – Two medium photos – Six small frames, two medium frames |
5.50 |
5 |
65 |
– Two medium photos – Two large photos – Two medium frames, two large frames |
7.50 |
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
- Calculate the cost for photo package 2:
Since Amy lives 18 miles away, her delivery cost will be greater.
18-15 = 3
5% x 3 = 15%
Delivery cost = 3.50 x 1.15 = 4.025
Total cost for photo package 2 = 4.025 + 25 = 29.025
- Calculate the cost for photo package 3:
1.15 x 4.5= 5.175
30 + 5.175 = 35.175
- Calculate the sum of the package costs:
35.175 + 29.025 = 64.20
- Work out the cost with a 5% discount applied:
0.95 x 64.2 = £60.99
Top tip: this question requires a 4-part calculation, which may be time consuming. If you feel you are running out of time on the UCAT, the best approach would be to flag these longer questions for review to attempt at the end of the section.
Photo Central is a company that sells photos. It is trialling a new set of photo packages, which include a bundle with different types of photos and frames. These deals are shown below. Delivery costs apply within a 15-mile radius of the store. Each additional mile will incur an extra 5% on the delivery fee. Multiple package deliveries will incur a delivery charge equal to the sum of the total delivery charges; for example, buying packages 1 and 3 would incur a delivery charge of £7.50.
Price List
Photo package |
Price (£) |
Description |
Delivery (£) |
1 |
15 |
– Six small photos – Six small frames included |
3.00 |
2 |
25 |
– Six small photos and one medium photo – Six small frames, one medium frame |
3.50 |
3 |
30 |
– Two medium photos – Two medium frames |
4.50 |
4 |
45 |
– Six small photos – Two medium photos – Six small frames, two medium frames |
5.50 |
5 |
65 |
– Two medium photos – Two large photos – Two medium frames, two large frames |
7.50 |
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
- Calculate the cost of Bobby’s packages:
Work out the photo costs-
15 + 25 = £40
Calculate the delivery cost, given that he is 1 mile over the radius of 15 miles-
3 + 3.50 = £6.50
6.50 x 1.05 = 6.825
40 + 6.825 = 46.825 total
- Calculate the cost of Melissa’s package:
The delivery fee for Melissa would be :
1.05 x 7.50 = 7.875
Add this onto the cost of the package:
65 + 7.875 = 72.875
- Calculate the difference between the two prices:
72.875 – 46.825 = £26.05
Timing tip: questions such as these are quicker if you use the UCAT calculator provided rather than noting numbers down yourself. Using the number keypad on the right may be worth getting used to, as it is much faster to use.
Photo Central is a company that sells photos. It is trialling a new set of photo packages, which include a bundle with different types of photos and frames. These deals are shown below. Delivery costs apply within a 15-mile radius of the store. Each additional mile will incur an extra 5% on the delivery fee. Multiple package deliveries will incur a delivery charge equal to the sum of the total delivery charges; for example, buying packages 1 and 3 would incur a delivery charge of £7.50.
Price List
Photo package |
Price (£) | Description | Delivery (£) |
1 | 15 | – Six small photos
– Six small frames included |
3.00 |
2 |
25 | – Six small photos and one medium photo
– Six small frames, one medium frame |
3.50 |
3 | 30 | – Two medium photos
– Two medium frames |
4.50 |
4 |
45 | – Six small photos
– Two medium photos – Six small frames, two medium frames |
5.50 |
5 |
65 | – Two medium photos
– Two large photos – Two medium frames, two large frames |
7.50 |
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
- Calculate the cost of the delivery:
We know that Joe bought two medium photos and frames as cheap as possible, so he must have selected package 3.
35.85 – 30 = £5.85 delivery
- Work out the percentage increase in cost of delivery
5.85/4.5 = 1.3
So there was a 30% increase in the cost.
- Calculate the distance above 15 miles:
We know that for each mile above a radius of 15 miles, an extra 5% is charged on delivery.
Therefore, Joe lives 30/5 = 6 miles outside the 15-mile radius.
Joe lives 15 + 6 = 21 miles away from Photo Central.
Common trap: this question requires you to work out the multiplier value in step 2. We know that this is equal to the new value divided by the original, not the other way around!
This table shows the prices for different short 5D movies at the local amusement park.
Movie |
Adult (16+) | Child (5-15) | Concession (65+) |
Jungle Adventure | £9.00 | £5.00 |
£7.50 |
Space Race |
£8.00 | £4.50 | £6.50 |
Monster Mayhem | £10.50 | £6.00 |
£9.00 |
Dracula Returns |
£10.50 | £6.00 | £9.00 |
Bunny’s Day Out | £7.00 | £3.50 |
£5.50 |
Free entry for children under 5 years. Students may pay the ‘Concession’ price.
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
- Work out the amount spent on the films alone:
Adult tickets: 3
(9 + 10.5) x 3 = £58.50
Child tickets: 1
5 + 6 = £11
Concessions: 1
7.5 + 9 = £16.50
- Work out the total of the costs:
58.5 + 16.5 + 11 + 25 = £111.
Top tip: read the question carefully and ensure you don’t miss any key bits of information. It is easy to forget that they also paid £25 for snacks and mistakenly select option A.
This table shows the prices for different short 5D movies at the local amusement park.
Movie |
Adult (16+) | Child (5-15) | Concession (65+) |
Jungle Adventure | £9.00 | £5.00 |
£7.50 |
Space Race |
£8.00 | £4.50 | £6.50 |
Monster Mayhem | £10.50 | £6.00 |
£9.00 |
Dracula Returns |
£10.50 | £6.00 | £9.00 |
Bunny’s Day Out | £7.00 | £3.50 |
£5.50 |
Free entry for children under 5 years. Students may pay the ‘Concession’ price.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
- Work out the cost for one student:
6.5 + 9 = £15.50
- Divide the total by this amount:
573.5/15.5 = 37
Common trap: Option A is designed to catch you out as it would be the answer if students paid the adult and not concessionary charge. Always remember to read the text surrounding any figure in the QR section.

Sat, 18 Sep 2021 14:29:45
why are the university students paying the prices of 65+

Thu, 10 Mar 2022 11:46:05
Hi, thank you for your question! If you look below the table, you can see that students can pay the 'Concession' price.
This table shows the prices for different short 5D movies at the local amusement park.
Movie |
Adult (16+) |
Child (5-15) |
Concession (65+) |
Jungle Adventure |
£9.00 |
£5.00 |
£7.50 |
Space Race |
£8.00 |
£4.50 |
£6.50 |
Monster Mayhem |
£10.50 |
£6.00 |
£9.00 |
Dracula Returns |
£10.50 |
£6.00 |
£9.00 |
Bunny’s Day Out |
£7.00 |
£3.50 |
£5.50 |
Free entry for children under 5 years. Students may pay the ‘Concession’ price.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
- Work out the number of adults and children who watched the film:
132 / 6 = 22 adults
345 / 3 = 115 children
- Work out the charges for each:
22 x 7 = 154
115 x 3.5 = 402.5
Total = 154 + 402.5 = £556.50
Timing tip: think of the quickest way to enter fractions on your calculator, as it can often be time consuming. In this question for example, instead of multiplying 132 by 1/6, simply divide 132 by 6 to get the same answer quicker.
This table shows the prices for different short 5D movies at the local amusement park.
Movie |
Adult (16+) | Child (5-15) | Concession (65+) |
Jungle Adventure | £9.00 | £5.00 |
£7.50 |
Space Race |
£8.00 | £4.50 | £6.50 |
Monster Mayhem | £10.50 | £6.00 |
£9.00 |
Dracula Returns |
£10.50 | £6.00 | £9.00 |
Bunny’s Day Out | £7.00 | £3.50 |
£5.50 |
Free entry for children under 5 years. Students may pay the ‘Concession’ price.
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
- Calculate the price before the discount was applied:
Discount = 12% so the multiplier value = 0.88
71.72/0.88 = 81.5
- Calculate the price of two adult tickets:
9 + 8 = 17
17 x 2 = £34
- Calculate the cost of one child ticket:
5 + 4.5 = 9.5
- Work out the number of children:
81.5-34 = 47.5
47.5/9.5 = 5 children
Top tip: this question requires you to find out the price before the discount is applied. Remember that when you use the multiplier method for this calculation, the multiplier value is 0.88 and not 0.12.
Alice is investigating a unit of measurement called a furlong. It is commonly used today in horse racing. The conversions between various units and furlongs are shown below.
Unit of measurement |
Furlongs |
1 yard |
0.00456 |
1 metre |
0.00497 |
1 foot |
0.00152 |
1 mile |
8.00 |
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
- Calculate the length in metres:
28 x 1000 = 28000m
- Convert this into furlongs:
28000 x 0.00497 = 139
Timing tip: since the answer options go up in powers of 10, it is possible to estimate the answer. We know that to convert km to m, we must multiply by 1000 and that the conversion to the furlong is close to 5 x 10-3. The powers of 10 cancel out and we can estimate that 28 x 5 will be closest to answer D.
Alice is investigating a unit of measurement called a furlong. It is commonly used today in horse racing. The conversions between various units and furlongs are shown below.
Unit of measurement |
Furlongs |
1 yard |
0.00456 |
1 metre |
0.00497 |
1 foot |
0.00152 |
1 mile |
8.00 |
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
- Calculate the ‘feet’ distance in furlongs:
3280 x 0.00152 = 4.9856
- Calculate the ‘yards’ distance in furlongs:
1093 x 0.00456 = 4.98408
- Calculate the total of these two distances:
Total = 4.9856 + 4.98408 = 9.96968 so
9.97 to three significant figures.
Top tip: remember to only round values at the end of the calculation, especially when the answer options are very close together in value.
Alice is investigating a unit of measurement called a furlong. It is commonly used today in horse racing. The conversions between various units and furlongs are shown below.
Unit of measurement |
Furlongs |
1 yard |
0.00456 |
1 metre |
0.00497 |
1 foot |
0.00152 |
1 mile |
8.00 |
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
- Calculate the circumference of the track in furlongs:
Circumference = 2πr
Circumference = 2 x 3.14 x (2/2) = 6.28 furlongs
- Convert this distance into metres:
6.28 / 0.00497 = 1264m
Top tip: try to use the calculator as efficiently as possible. It might help to memorise some keyboard shortcuts, for example, Control + C will open the calculator on your screen.
Alice is investigating a unit of measurement called a furlong. It is commonly used today in horse racing. The conversions between various units and furlongs are shown below.
Unit of measurement |
Furlongs |
1 yard |
0.00456 |
1 metre |
0.00497 |
1 foot |
0.00152 |
1 mile |
8.00 |
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
- Work out the distance in yards that Max can kick a football:
40 x 3/5 = 24 yards
- Convert this distance to furlongs:
24 x 0.00456 = 0.10944 so
0.109 to three significant figures.
The laptop company Luxe has released two new models of laptop: the Alpha and Beta. There are five sellers of Luxe laptops; Artech, Brightside, Compsave, Delton and Enigma. Their sales in the first six months are shown below:
Seller |
Alpha |
Beta |
Artech |
3847 |
4759 |
Brightside |
2095 |
3122 |
Compsave |
3945 |
4028 |
Delton |
5689 |
1002 |
Enigma |
4039 |
3759 |
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
- Calculate the total number of laptops sold by Brightside:
2095 + 3122 = 5217
- Calculate the Beta sales as a percentage of this:
3122/5217 x 100 = 59.8%
Top tip: this is a relatively simple question and shouldn’t take too much time if you use the calculator provided efficiently. It is best not to estimate for these types of questions as the numbers are not easily rounded.
The laptop company Luxe has released two new models of laptop: the Alpha and Beta. There are five sellers of Luxe laptops; Artech, Brightside, Compsave, Delton and Enigma. Their sales in the first six months are shown below:
Seller |
Alpha |
Beta |
Artech |
3847 |
4759 |
Brightside |
2095 |
3122 |
Compsave |
3945 |
4028 |
Delton |
5689 |
1002 |
Enigma |
4039 |
3759 |
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
- Work out the average monthly sales for Artech:
3847/6 = 641.17
- Work out the average monthly sales for Delton:
5689/6 = 948.17
- Calculate the difference between the two:
948.17 – 641.17 = 307
Common trap: read the question carefully – in the question stem it states that the sales figures are over a period of 6 months. In this question the difference between monthly sales is needed.
The laptop company Luxe has released two new models of laptop: the Alpha and Beta. There are five sellers of Luxe laptops; Artech, Brightside, Compsave, Delton and Enigma. Their sales in the first six months are shown below:
Seller |
Alpha |
Beta |
Artech |
3847 |
4759 |
Brightside |
2095 |
3122 |
Compsave |
3945 |
4028 |
Delton |
5689 |
1002 |
Enigma |
4039 |
3759 |
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
- Work out the sales of Beta laptops by Compsave in the second six months:
0.85 x 4028 = 3423.8
- Work out the sales of Beta laptops by Enigma in the second six months:
0.85 x 3759 = 3195.15
- Work out the percentage difference between the two:
3423.8/3195.15 = 1.07156 so
Compsave sold 7.16% more Beta laptops
Timing tip: a big shortcut for this question would be to disregard the fact that the sales were 15% lower, since they were lowered by the same proportion for both Compsave and Enigma. Simply calculating 4028/3759 would give you the same answer.
The laptop company Luxe has released two new models of laptop: the Alpha and Beta. There are five sellers of Luxe laptops; Artech, Brightside, Compsave, Delton and Enigma. Their sales in the first six months are shown below:
Seller |
Alpha |
Beta |
Artech |
3847 |
4759 |
Brightside |
2095 |
3122 |
Compsave |
3945 |
4028 |
Delton |
5689 |
1002 |
Enigma |
4039 |
3759 |
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
- Calculate the expected number of Beta laptops for the second six months:
1002 x 1.1 = 1102.2
- Calculate the total number of laptops expected to be sold in the second six months:
1102.2 + 8875 = 9977.2
- Calculate the current total number of laptops sold by Delton:
5689 + 1002 = 6691
- Calculate the percentage increase in sales:
9977.2/6691 = 1.49 so
49% increase in sales.
Common trap: remember that for percentage increase questions, a value of 1.49 indicates a 49% increase and not a 149% increase.
The table below shows trends in tourism in the small country of Rundor. Rundor is made up of two islands; Malu and Tuza.
Month & Year |
No. visitors to Malu |
No. visitors to Tuza |
January, 2019 |
4749 |
2847 |
April, 2019 |
6883 |
3858 |
July, 2019 |
12,028 |
8402 |
October, 2019 |
3890 |
2746 |
January, 2020 |
5438 |
3466 |
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
- Calculate the percentage increase between October 2019 and January 2020:
5438/3890 = 1.39794 so
39.794% increase
- Calculate the number of people visiting Malu in October 2018:
4749/1.39794 = 3397 people
Timing tip: looking at the answer options, we can immediately rule out options D and E as they are higher than the number of visitors in January 2019, and we know from the question that the number will be lower than 4749. If you need to guess an answer, ruling out impossible answers will make your guess more likely to be correct.
The table below shows trends in tourism in the small country of Rundor. Rundor is made up of two islands; Malu and Tuza.
Month & Year |
No. visitors to Malu |
No. visitors to Tuza |
January, 2019 |
4749 |
2847 |
April, 2019 |
6883 |
3858 |
July, 2019 |
12,028 |
8402 |
October, 2019 |
3890 |
2746 |
January, 2020 |
5438 |
3466 |
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
- Calculate the sum of the visitors to Malu and Tuza in January:
Malu: 4749 + 5438 = 10187
Tuza: 2847 + 3466 = 6313
- Work out the percentage difference:
6313/10187 = 0.6197
1-0.6197 = 0.38
So Tuza has 38% fewer visitors in January on average.
Common trap: this question asks for the percentage of visitors to Tuza compared to Malu. Therefore, we need to make the Tuza figures the numerator and the Malu figures the denominator of the fraction.
The table below shows trends in tourism in the small country of Rundor. Rundor is made up of two islands; Malu and Tuza.
Month & Year |
No. visitors to Malu | No. visitors to Tuza |
January, 2019 | 4749 |
2847 |
April, 2019 |
6883 | 3858 |
July, 2019 | 12,028 |
8402 |
October, 2019 |
3890 | 2746 |
January, 2020 | 5438 |
3466 |
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
- Work out the number of tourists in Thesu for the whole of April:
6883 x 0.34 = 2340.22
- Divide this by the number of days in April:
2340.22/30 = 78 people.
Top tip: read the question carefully, especially if the options given are significantly different. Some candidates would forget to divide by 30 days, incorrectly leading them to option C.
The table below shows trends in tourism in the small country of Rundor. Rundor is made up of two islands; Malu and Tuza.
Month & Year |
No. visitors to Malu |
No. visitors to Tuza |
January, 2019 |
4749 |
2847 |
April, 2019 |
6883 |
3858 |
July, 2019 |
12,028 |
8402 |
October, 2019 |
3890 |
2746 |
January, 2020 |
5438 |
3466 |
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
The best way to tackle this question is through trial and error.
Option A:
Visitors to Tuza in July and October = 11148
Visitors to Malu in July = 12028
Therefore, Option A = false.
Option B:
Total number of tourists in April: 10741
Total number of tourists in July: 20430
20430/10741 = 1.95 so a 95% increase
Option C:
Through trial and error, we know this is true.
Option D:
Through trial and error, October 2019 has the highest ratio of Tuza:Malu but the lowest ratio of Malu:Tuza.
Option E:
12028 + 8402 = 20430
20430 x 300 = 6129000 which is less than 7 million.
Top tip: this question is very long and requires a number of steps. If a question is beginning to take too much time, flag it and move on and review it at the end.
One town’s zoos are comparing the numbers of different animals they have. The differences are shown in the table below.
Zoo |
Tigers |
Lions |
Cheetahs |
Elephants |
Rhinos |
A |
4 |
8 |
12 |
2 |
3 |
B |
3 |
5 |
13 |
3 |
4 |
C |
6 |
9 |
7 |
4 |
2 |
D |
2 |
7 |
10 |
2 |
3 |
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
- Calculate the number of tigers in this town:
4 + 3 + 6 + 2 = 15
- Calculate the percentage from Zoo C:
6/15 = 0.4 so 40%
Timing tip: learn the values of common fractions. Knowing that 6/15 simplifies to 2/5 (=0.4) will save the use of the calculator on simple questions such as this one.
One town’s zoos are comparing the numbers of different animals they have. The differences are shown in the table below.
Zoo |
Tigers |
Lions |
Cheetahs |
Elephants |
Rhinos |
A |
4 |
8 |
12 |
2 |
3 |
B |
3 |
5 |
13 |
3 |
4 |
C |
6 |
9 |
7 |
4 |
2 |
D |
2 |
7 |
10 |
2 |
3 |
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
- Calculate the total number of cheetahs:
12 + 13 + 7 + 10 = 42
- Calculate the total number of lions:
8 + 5 + 9 + 7 = 29
- Calculate the percentage decrease:
29/42 = 0.69
(1-0.69) x 100 = 31% decrease overall.
Common trap: remember that in this question we are looking to find the percentage decrease. Therefore, the multiplier of 0.69 indicates that the final value is 69% of the original – i.e. that the new value is 31% lower.
One town’s zoos are comparing the numbers of different animals they have. The differences are shown in the table below.
Zoo |
Tigers |
Lions |
Cheetahs |
Elephants |
Rhinos |
A |
4 |
8 |
12 |
2 |
3 |
B |
3 |
5 |
13 |
3 |
4 |
C |
6 |
9 |
7 |
4 |
2 |
D |
2 |
7 |
10 |
2 |
3 |
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
- Calculate the total number of animals in Zoo D:
2 + 7 + 10 + 2 + 3 = 24
- Calculate the percentage increase with 2 additional animals:
26/24 = 1.083333 so
Percentage increase = 8.3%
One town’s zoos are comparing the numbers of different animals they have. The differences are shown in the table below.
Zoo |
Tigers |
Lions |
Cheetahs |
Elephants |
Rhinos |
A |
4 |
8 |
12 |
2 |
3 |
B |
3 |
5 |
13 |
3 |
4 |
C |
6 |
9 |
7 |
4 |
2 |
D |
2 |
7 |
10 |
2 |
3 |
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
- Calculate how many tigers in total are from India:
0.6 x (4 + 3 + 6 + 2) = 9
- Devise a formula for the number of Indian tigers in each zoo:
If x = number of tigers in Zoo A and B,
2x + C = 9
- Work out the number of Indian tigers in Zoo B:
0.6 x 5 = 3 tigers so x = 3
- Substitute this back into the formula:
2 x 3 + C = 9
C = 9-6 = 3 tigers.
Top tip: try not to rely on the use of the calculator too much as this is quite time-consuming, especially with an on-screen calculator. The sums in this question, for example, are all able to be done in your head.
The table below shows the results of a study carried out by a group of students in a school. They carried out the study in their school and included all 1000 people, both male and female.
Dominant hand |
Number of males |
Right |
480 |
Left |
26 |
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
- Work out the number of people who are right handed in the study:
9/10 x 1000 = 900
- Work out the number of females who are right handed:
900 – 480 = 420
- Work out the number of people who are left handed in the survey:
1/10 x 1000 = 100
- Work out the number of females who are left handed:
100 – 26 = 74
- Work out the difference between the two:
420 – 74 = 346
Top tip: remember that ratios can be easily converted into fractions. A ratio of right:left of 9:1 means that 9/10 people are right handed.
The table below shows the results of a study carried out by a group of students in a school. They carried out the study in their school and included all 1000 people, both male and female.
Dominant hand |
Number of males |
Right |
480 |
Left |
26 |
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
- Work out the proportion of left-handed males in the school:
26 /1000 = 0.026
- Multiply this value by 1350:
0.026 x 1350 = 35.1
The table below shows the number of pairs of jeans sold by a clothes shop over a period of 5 months.
January |
February |
March |
April |
May |
273 |
230 |
364 |
338 |
274 |
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
- Work out the number of jeans sold in the 5 months:
273 + 230 + 364 + 338 + 274 = 1479
- Calculate the target number of pairs needed to be sold in June:
2000 – 1479 = 521
- Work out the average monthly sales:
1479 / 5 = 295.8
- Calculate the difference between the first value and the average:
521 – 296 = 225
Timing tip: get used to using the UCAT calculator. There is a memory recall button for questions like this which would be useful when you need to use the answer to a previous calculation.
The table below shows the number of pairs of jeans sold by a clothes shop over a period of 5 months.
January |
February | March | April | May |
273 | 230 | 364 | 338 |
274 |
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
- Work out the ‘original’ number of jeans sold:
364/1.23 = 295.9 which rounds to 296.
- Add the total number of jeans sold over the five months:
273 + 230 + 296 + 338 + 274 = 1410
Common trap: remember that to find the original value, divide by the multiplier value. In this question, the multiplier value is 1.23 and not 0.23 or 0.77.
The chart below shows the distances between various towns. All distances are in miles.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
Speed = distance/time so time = distance/speed.
Time = 27/30 = 0.9
0.9 x 60 = 54 minutes.
Top tip: with speed, distance, time questions always pay close attention to the units. For example, although the speed is in miles per hour, the time they ask for in the question is in minutes.
The chart below shows the distances between various towns. All distances are in miles.
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
This question mentions Enmoor which is not in the question stem, but do not be put off by this. Since there are no numbers, it is necessary to solve this through the use of equations.
- Devise a formula for the new time:
If the old time taken was equal to d/s, then the time taken now will be d/1.15s.
- Find the percentage change between the new time and old time:
Percentage change = (d/1.15s) / (d/s)
This cancels out to equal 1/1.15s
1/1.15 = 0.8696
1-0.8696 = 0.13 so 13% decrease.
Common trap: it may look like there is not enough information in the question, however, don’t immediately select the Can’t Tell option. It is worth remembering relevant formulae and seeing whether these can be used to work out an answer.
The chart below shows the distances between various towns. All distances are in miles.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
- Work out the cost of travelling the distance in Xander’s car:
4.20 / 1.2 = 3.5
So the cost of the journey = £3.50
- Work out the difference in price:
4.2 – 3.5 = £0.70
The chart below shows the distances between various towns. All distances are in miles.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
- Calculate the total distance Jenna travelled:
10 + 19 + 15 = 44 miles
- Calculate the amount spent by Jenna on fuel:
44 x 0.15 = £6.60
Common trap: read the question carefully, as she does not make a return journey the same way but rather returns directly to Coltring. This would incorrectly lead you to option D.
Quantitative Reasoning Review Screen
Instructions
Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.
The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:
1. Review all of your questions and answers.
2. Review questions that are incomplete.
3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)
You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.
Quantitative Reasoning Section
Abstract Reasoning Practice Subtest Instructions
There are 4 different question types in this section of the exam.
For type 1, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled “Set A” and “Set B”. You will be given a test shape and asked to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B, or Neither.
For type 2, you will be presented with a series of shapes. You will be asked to select the next shape in series.
For type 3, you will be presented with a statement, involving a group of shapes. You will be asked to determine which shape completes the statement.
For type 4, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled “Set A” and “Set B”. You will be asked to select which of the four response options belongs to Set A or Set B.
It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.
Click the Next (N) button to proceed.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is an odd number of shapes in each box
SET B: There is an even number of shapes in each box
The correct answer is B. This box contains 2 shapes, which is even.

Explanation
The correct answer is B. This box contains 6 shapes, which is even.

Explanation
The correct answer is A. This box contains 5 shapes, which is odd.

Explanation
The correct answer is A. This box contains 3 shapes, which is odd.

Explanation
The correct answer is B. This box contains 2 shapes, which is even.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There are five pentagons and three triangles in every box. There is one instance
of triangles being vertically adjacent. Size is not significant.
SET B: There are three pentagons and five triangles in every box. There is one instance
of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent and at least 3 triangles aligned vertically or horizontally. Size is not significant.
Answer
The correct answer is B. This belongs to set B because there is exactly one instance of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent. There are five triangles and three pentagons in the square.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There are five pentagons and three triangles in every box. There is one instance
of triangles being vertically adjacent. Size is not significant.
SET B: There are three pentagons and five triangles in every box. There is one instance
of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent and at least 3 triangles aligned vertically or horizontally. Size is not significant.
Answer
The correct answer is A. There are three triangles and five pentagons. There is only one instance where the triangles are vertically adjacent.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There are five pentagons and three triangles in every box. There is one instance
of triangles being vertically adjacent. Size is not significant.
SET B: There are three pentagons and five triangles in every box. There is one instance
of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent and at least 3 triangles aligned vertically or horizontally. Size is not significant.
Answer
The correct answer is C. There are three pentagons and five triangles. The pentagons are only horizontally adjacent once. However 3 triangles are not aligned vertically or horizontally.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There are five pentagons and three triangles in every box. There is one instance
of triangles being vertically adjacent. Size is not significant.
SET B: There are three pentagons and five triangles in every box. There is one instance
of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent. Size is not significant.
Answer
The correct answer is B. There are three pentagons and five triangles. Although the pentagons are all horizontally aligned, only two are adjacent so this belongs to set B.

Fri, 20 Aug 2021 16:00:04
As before, three triangles are not aligned in a horizontal or vertical row so it should be a C.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There are five pentagons and three triangles in every box. There is one instance
of triangles being vertically adjacent. Size is not significant.
SET B: There are three pentagons and five triangles in every box. There is one instance
of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent. Size is not significant.
Answer
The correct answer is C. There are five pentagons and three triangles, however, this cannot belong to set A as none of the triangles are vertically aligned.
Common trap: do not compare the answer options to squares within the question stem. This is not a reliable technique as there could be subtle changes between the two which influence the pattern. For example, in this question the position of the pentagons matters a lot. A similar-looking box with a different positioning of pentagons may not belong to the same set.

Tue, 24 Aug 2021 21:29:47
How is this not faulty, surely the answer is A

Sun, 12 Sep 2021 05:36:57
I think it is A as well

Thu, 10 Mar 2022 12:06:49
Hi, thank you for the comments. Although there are 3 triangles and 5 pentagons, this is not sufficient for this image to be in Set A. Two triangles must also be vertically adjacent.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is at least one circle and one quadrilateral.
SET B: There is at least one triangle and one pentagon.
Answer
The correct answer is A. There is one circle and four quadrilaterals, so this belongs to set A.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is at least one circle and one quadrilateral.
SET B: There is at least one triangle and one pentagon.
Answer
The correct answer is C. This belongs to neither set as there are no quadrilaterals, so it cannot belong to set A, and there are no pentagons, so it cannot belong to set B.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is at least one circle and one quadrilateral.
SET B: There is at least one triangle and one pentagon.
Answer
The correct answer is A. This belongs to set A as there is one circle and two quadrilaterals.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is at least one circle and one quadrilateral.
SET B: There is at least one triangle and one pentagon.
Answer
The correct answer is C. This belongs to neither set as it fulfils the criteria for both set A and set B.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is at least one circle and one quadrilateral.
SET B: There is at least one triangle and one pentagon.
Answer
The correct answer is A. This belongs to set A since there is one quadrilateral and two circles.
Timing tip: If you feel that a question is beginning to take too long, flag it, guess, and move on. This is good general advice for the UCAT but particularly in the AR section, where you will only have 14 minutes for the whole section.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The number of acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing upwards.
SET B: The number of non-acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing downwards.
Answer
The correct answer is A. There are two acute angles and two upward arrows.

Thu, 17 Mar 2022 11:34:22
This pattern is so obscure I reckon its best to just skip it right?

Wed, 29 Jun 2022 18:54:52
I don't get this ? how can you tell that its acute or not?

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The number of acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing upwards.
SET B: The number of non-acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing downwards.
Answer
The correct answer is C. There are two acute angles and two obtuse angles, but all four arrows are pointing downwards.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The number of acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing upwards.
SET B: The number of non-acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing downwards.
Answer
The correct answer is C. There are six acute angles and six arrows, however, only three of these arrows point upwards.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The number of acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing upwards.
SET B: The number of non-acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing downwards.
Answer
The correct answer is B. There are two non-acute angles and two arrows pointing down.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The number of acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing upwards.
SET B: The number of non-acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing downwards.
Answer
The correct answer is B. This belongs to set B as there are no non-acute angles and no arrows pointing down.
Common trap: Watch out for distractors. Many of the arrows in these sets are distractors, and only some have relevance to the pattern itself.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is one shape at the top of each box which has an odd number of sides. All other shapes have an even number of sides.
SET B: There is one shape at the top of each box which has an even number of sides. All other shapes have an odd number of sides.
Answer
The correct answer is C. All three shapes in the square have an odd number of sides. This belongs to neither set. It cannot belong to set B because it the shape at the top of the square has an odd number of sides. It cannot belong to set A because the other shapes below the top shape each have an odd number of sides as well, but for it to belong in set B they must have an even number of sides.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is one shape at the top of each box which has an odd number of sides. All other shapes have an even number of sides.
SET B: There is one shape at the top of each box which has an even number of sides. All other shapes have an odd number of sides.
Answer
The correct answer is A. There is a circle at the top with an odd number of sides. All other shapes have an even number of sides.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is one shape at the top of each box which has an odd number of sides. All other shapes have an even number of sides.
SET B: There is one shape at the top of each box which has an even number of sides. All other shapes have an odd number of sides.
Answer
The correct answer is B. This belongs to set B as the shape at the top has an even number of sides and the shape below it has an odd number of sides.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is one shape at the top of each box which has an odd number of sides. All other shapes have an even number of sides.
SET B: There is one shape at the top of each box which has an even number of sides. All other shapes have an odd number of sides.
Answer
The correct answer is C. This does not belong to either set as there are two shapes at the top of the square.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is one shape at the top of each box which has an odd number of sides. All other shapes have an even number of sides.
SET B: There is one shape at the top of each box which has an even number of sides. All other shapes have an odd number of sides.
Answer
The correct answer is A. This belongs to set A since there is a shape with an odd number of sides at the top and all other shapes have an even number of sides.
Top tip: Think about how the patterns in set A mirror those in set B. Often, the changes will be reciprocal; for example, the pattern here is the same in A and B with odd and even switched.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is always an odd number of shapes. The shape in the centre is white.
SET B: There is always an even number of shapes. The shape in the centre is shaded.
Answer
The correct answer is A. There are three shapes. The shape in the centre is white.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is always an odd number of shapes. The shape in the centre is white.
SET B: There is always an even number of shapes. The shape in the centre is shaded.
Answer
The correct answer is B. There are four shapes. The shape in the centre is black.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is always an odd number of shapes. The shape in the centre is white.
SET B: There is always an even number of shapes. The shape in the centre is shaded.
Answer
The correct answer is B. There are six shapes, and the shape in the centre is black.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is always an odd number of shapes. The shape in the centre is white.
SET B: There is always an even number of shapes. The shape in the centre is shaded.
Answer
The correct answer is C. There are two shapes, however the centre shape is white. Therefore, this can neither belong to set A nor set B.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: There is always an odd number of shapes. The shape in the centre is white.
SET B: There is always an even number of shapes. The shape in the centre is shaded.
Answer
The correct answer is C. There is no shape in the middle, so this cannot belong to either set.
Top tip: Try to work through all the possible pattern in a systematic manner, for example, using the SPONCS technique – shape, position, orientation, number, colour, size. You are unlikely to miss key patterns by working in this way.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: For every black circle there are two grey.
SET B: For every white circle there are two black circles.
Answer
The correct answer is B. There are two white circles and four black circles, so this belongs to set B.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: For every black circle there are two grey.
SET B: For every white circle there are two black circles.
Answer
The correct answer is A. This belongs to set A as there are two black circles and four grey.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: For every black circle there are two grey.
SET B: For every white circle there are two black circles.
Answer
The correct answer is C. This belongs to neither set as the numbers of different coloured circles do not correspond with each other.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: For every black circle there are two grey.
SET B: For every white circle there are two black circles.
Answer
The correct answer is C. The numbers of grey and black circles are the same. This does not correspond to set A or set B.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: For every black circle there are two grey.
SET B: For every white circle there are two black circles.
Answer
The correct answer is A. There are three black circles and six grey circles. Therefore, this belongs to set A.
Common trap: The appearance of the boxes makes it look like the pattern will involve position. Remember that if you cannot find a clear pattern involving one of the factors (e.g. position), disregard it and move on.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The pentagon is always to the left of the square and to the right of the parallelogram.
SET B: The triangle is always to the left of the circle and to the right of the pentagon.
Answer
The correct answer is B. This fits the pattern for B because the pattern is pentagon, triangle, circle.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The pentagon is always to the left of the square and to the right of the parallelogram.
SET B: The triangle is always to the left of the circle and to the right of the pentagon.
Answer
The correct answer is C. Neither of the set A or set B patterns are seen in this square, therefore, this belongs to neither set.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The pentagon is always to the left of the square and to the right of the parallelogram.
SET B: The triangle is always to the left of the circle and to the right of the pentagon.
Answer
The correct answer is B. The pattern of pentagon, triangle, circle is seen so this must belong to set B.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The pentagon is always to the left of the square and to the right of the parallelogram.
SET B: The triangle is always to the left of the circle and to the right of the pentagon.
Answer
The correct answer is A. This belongs to set A as the pattern of parallelogram, pentagon, square is seen.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The pentagon is always to the left of the square and to the right of the parallelogram.
SET B: The triangle is always to the left of the circle and to the right of the pentagon.
Answer
The correct answer is C. This does not belong to either set as it does not contain either pattern of shapes.
Timing tip: calculate how much time each question should take and pace yourself accordingly. There is a countdown timer on the UCAT exam screen, and you can use this to determine how on-track you are with timing.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The number of sides on the shape is the same as the number of intersections.
SET B: The number of sides on the shape is the same as the number of intersections minus two.
Answer
The correct answer is B. There are eight intersections and a six-sided hexagon, so this must belong to set B.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The number of sides on the shape is the same as the number of intersections.
SET B: The number of sides on the shape is the same as the number of intersections minus two.
Answer
The correct answer is A. There is one intersection and a one-sided circle, so this belongs to set A.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The number of sides on the shape is the same as the number of intersections.
SET B: The number of sides on the shape is the same as the number of intersections minus two.
Answer
The correct answer is B. There are three intersections and a one-sided circle, so this belongs to set B.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The number of sides on the shape is the same as the number of intersections.
SET B: The number of sides on the shape is the same as the number of intersections minus two.
Answer
The correct answer is C. There are two intersections and the shape is three-sided. Therefore, this belongs to neither set.

Explanation
Pattern
SET A: The number of sides on the shape is the same as the number of intersections.
SET B: The number of sides on the shape is the same as the number of intersections minus two.
Answer
The correct answer is B. There are six intersections and a four-sided shape, so this belongs to set B.
Top tip: Questions which include lines often have some sort of pattern which revolves around the number of intersections and angles.
Explanation
The correct answer is A. The circle will be in the top right corner, grey square on the right, diagonal square on the top, dotted square on the left, white square on the bottom.
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
First, notice that the shapes move up a line. For example the square is on the third line at first but it moves to the second line after that.
Next, the color of each shape alternates between black and white.
Therefore the answer is A.
Explanation
The correct answer is D. The shape in the top left corner moves to the bottom right corner and vice versa. The shape that was inside this shape goes outside the shape and vice versa. The top left shape is always white with a smaller black shape, while the bottom right shape is always black with a smaller grey shape.
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Each shape gains one side and becomes a shade darker. If the shape is black, it becomes white. The grey heart becomes a black triangle, white triangle becomes a grey square, grey pentagon becomes a black hexagon, black hexagon becomes a white heptagon, therefore D is the correct answer.
Explanation
The correct answer is D. The shape in the top left corner moves to the bottom right corner and vice versa. The shape that was inside this shape goes outside the shape and vice versa. The top left shape is always white with a smaller black shape, while the bottom right shape is always black with a smaller grey shape.
Common trap: Some patterns are designed to waste your time, as they are extremely difficult. The most successful candidates will recognise these patterns and move on from them.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
Explanation: Each shape moves one space anticlockwise. The patterns of each shape move in a clockwise manner.
Common trap: Some patterns are designed to waste your time, as they are extremely difficult. The most successful candidates will recognise these patterns and move on from them.
Explanation
Pattern
Set A: If the number of overlaps is even, some shapes will be shaded. If the number of overlaps is odd, all the shapes will be white.
Set B: If the number of overlaps is odd, all the shapes will be shaded. If the number of overlaps is even, all the shapes will be white.
Answer
The correct answer is B. There is an even number of overlaps, hence all the shapes are white.
Explanation
Pattern
Set A: If the number of overlaps is even, all the shapes will be shaded. If the number of overlaps is odd, all the shapes will be white.
Set B: If the number of overlaps is odd, all the shapes will be shaded. If the number of overlaps is even, all the shapes will be white.
Answer
The correct answer is A. There are two overlaps and all the shapes are shaded, so this belongs to set A.
Explanation
Pattern
Set A: If the number of overlaps is even, all the shapes will be shaded. If the number of overlaps is odd, all the shapes will be white.
Set B: If the number of overlaps is odd, all the shapes will be shaded. If the number of overlaps is even, all the shapes will be white.
Answer
The correct answer is B. There are two overlaps and all the shapes are shaded, so this belongs to set A.
Explanation
Pattern
Set A: If the number of overlaps is even, all the shapes will be shaded. If the number of overlaps is odd, all the shapes will be white.
Set B: If the number of overlaps is odd, all the shapes will be shaded. If the number of overlaps is even, all the shapes will be white.
Answer
The correct answer is A. There are no overlaps, so all the shapes are white.
Common trap: Remember that number patterns are not as common as you may think. Only count if you do not see many shapes.
Abstract Reasoning Review Screen
Instructions
Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.
The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:
1. Review all of your questions and answers.
2. Review questions that are incomplete.
3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)
You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.
Abstract Reasoning Section
Situational Judgement Question Bank 1 Instructions
Use this question bank to practice Situational Judgement questions.
You will be presented by a set of hypothetical scenarios based in a clinical or educational setting and may involve a student or clinician at their center. You will be asked to make judgments as to the appropriateness or the importance of a series of statements in response to the scenario.
It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.
Click the Next (N) button to proceed.
Uzair is currently on his elective at UNSW Sydney Hospital as a medical student and is taking a history from a patient who informs him that they heard one of the consultants called Dr House making racist comments about one of the staff. The patient is seriously hurt by the comments but doesn’t want to make a complaint as they think it will compromise their care.
Please rate how appropriate the following responses are by Uzair in this situation:
Explanation
The correct answer is A. It is likely that this will result in this being reported to a senior colleague and if Uzair is filing a complaint, it is paramount that he get all the relevant details.
Uzair is currently on his elective at UNSW Sydney Hospital as a medical student and is taking a history from a patient who informs him that they heard one of the consultants called Dr House making racist comments about one of the staff. The patient is seriously hurt by the comments but doesn’t want to make a complaint as they think it will compromise their care.
Please rate how appropriate the following responses are by Uzair in this situation:
Explanation
The correct answer is D. It is clear that there can be no justification for these actions. The consultant was racist and this can even lead to him becoming struck off. The seriousness of the matter makes it even more inappropriate.
Uzair is currently on his elective at UNSW Sydney Hospital as a medical student and is taking a history from a patient who informs him that they heard one of the consultants called Dr House making racist comments about one of the staff. The patient is seriously hurt by the comments but doesn’t want to make a complaint as they think it will compromise their care.
Please rate how appropriate the following responses are by Uzair in this situation:
Explanation
The correct answer is B. It is good that Uzair is taking action and dealing with the matter at hand – it can sometimes be easier to speak to someone who is more used to dealing with this however the best option would be to speak to the consultant himself.
Top Tip: If you are ever stuck between A and B ask yourself – is there anyway this response could be improved?
Uzair is currently on his elective at UNSW Sydney Hospital as a medical student and is taking a history from a patient who informs him that they heard one of the consultants called Dr House making racist comments about one of the staff. The patient is seriously hurt by the comments but doesn’t want to make a complaint as they think it will compromise their care.
Please rate how appropriate the following responses are by Uzair in this situation:
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
It is always inappropriate to apologise for a mistake which you did not make. This is extremely important as healthcare professionals need to be able to protect themselves from having to take responsibility over actions that they did not make.

Tue, 02 Aug 2022 18:16:23
Is the answer B or D?????

Sat, 06 Aug 2022 08:15:45
@UCATGOAT ikkrrr??!!

Tue, 16 Aug 2022 21:48:54
I've seen so many similar scenarios where someone apologises on behalf of someone else and it's seen as the correct thing to do, why is this different?
Akshay is a junior doctor who has just begun his placement at Adenbrooke’s hospital. He is speaking to Mr Travers, a former professor in biology who claims that he is averse to staying in the hospital for long due to its historic battle with an infection called C.Difficile. Akshay informs Mr Travers that he will have potentially have to stay overnight in the hospital due to the risk of him having a heart attack – but needs to check with his senior. Akshay recently had his induction and was told that the levels of C.Difficile in the hospital are low but he isn’t sure if this is as low as it should be.
Please rate how appropriate the following responses are by Akshay in this situation:
Explanation
The correct answer is B. It’s good that Akshay is being honest and informing Mr Travers that he doesn’t know however he shouldn’t continue his agenda until he has satisfied Mr Travers’ concerns.
Akshay is a junior doctor who has just begun his placement at Adenbrooke’s hospital. He is speaking to Mr Travers, a former professor in biology who claims that he is averse to staying in the hospital for long due to its historic battle with an infection called C.Difficile. Akshay informs Mr Travers that he will have potentially have to stay overnight in the hospital due to the risk of him having a heart attack – but needs to check with his senior. Akshay recently had his induction and was told that the levels of C.Difficile in the hospital are low but he isn’t sure if this is as low as it should be.
Please rate how appropriate the following responses are by Akshay in this situation:
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Akshay is potentially wasting his time by finding out the rates because it’s not certain that Mr Travers will need to be admitted. This means his information checking will be in vain and so it’s better to prioritise finding out if he does really need to be admitted.
Akshay is a junior doctor who has just begun his placement at Adenbrooke’s hospital. He is speaking to Mr Travers, a former professor in biology who claims that he is averse to staying in the hospital for long due to its historic battle with an infection called C.Difficile. Akshay informs Mr Travers that he will have potentially have to stay overnight in the hospital due to the risk of him having a heart attack – but needs to check with his senior. Akshay recently had his induction and was told that the levels of C.Difficile in the hospital are low but he isn’t sure if this is as low as it should be.
Please rate how appropriate the following responses are by Akshay in this situation:
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Akshay doesn’t know that it is ‘nothing to worry about’. He should first find out if there if there is a threat or not. He is giving Mr Travers a false sense of security. This would be seen as unprofessional. Lying is unacceptable.
Akshay is a junior doctor who has just begun his placement at Adenbrooke’s hospital. He is speaking to Mr Travers, a former professor in biology who claims that he is averse to staying in the hospital for long due to its historic battle with an infection called C.Difficile. Akshay informs Mr Travers that he will have potentially have to stay overnight in the hospital due to the risk of him having a heart attack – but needs to check with his senior. Akshay recently had his induction and was told that the levels of C.Difficile in the hospital are low but he isn’t sure if this is as low as it should be.
Please rate how appropriate the following responses are by Akshay in this situation:
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This is absolutely the right thing to do. Akshay is using his time wisely by finding out if Mr Travers will indeed have to stay in hospital or not.
Ilhem is currently a newly qualified dentist and is working in a team with other dentists in the orthodontics department. She is aware that the department is underfunded and there are not enough hygienists to support. One senior hygienist leaves 45 minutes early almost every day as she has to visit her father in hospital who is terminally ill
How important are each of the following factors for Ilhem to consider?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. If the senior hygienist was leaving early because she didn’t feel like working or had reasons which were unjustifiable it would be important as she is compromising patient safety without any valid reason. The reason it is not A is because she still shouldn’t be leaving earlier unless she has been given authorisation to do so
Ilhem is currently a newly qualified dentist and is working in a team with other dentists in the orthodontics department. She is aware that the department is underfunded and there are not enough hygienists to support. One senior hygienist leaves 45 minutes early almost every day as she has to visit her father in hospital who is terminally ill
How important are each of the following factors for Ilhem to consider?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. She is still missing work at the end of the day so even if it is for a week or a year – she still has the same detrimental effect on productivity. There is also no guarantee that it is in fact temporary as it may be longer than that.

Wed, 24 Jul 2024 11:44:16
surely if her dad is terminally ill hell die evnetually so the situation is temporary because shell come back to being productive once he dies no
Ilhem is currently a newly qualified dentist and is working in a team with other dentists in the orthodontics department. She is aware that the department is underfunded and there are not enough hygienists to support. One senior hygienist leaves 45 minutes early almost every day as she has to visit her father in hospital who is terminally ill
How important are each of the following factors for Ilhem to consider?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. All employees have the same rights and expectations in terms of reporting other workers and if you do feel something is suspicious you should report it – this goes for whether you are a junior or a senior in whichever field.
Ilhem is currently a newly qualified dentist and is working in a team with other dentists in the orthodontics department. She is aware that the department is underfunded and there are not enough hygienists to support. One senior hygienist leaves 45 minutes early almost every day as she has to visit her father in hospital who is terminally ill
How important are each of the following factors for Ilhem to consider?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Illhem may be causing diruption and affecting her working relationship with the colleague if there is already an agreement in place. It is therefore very important to check if this is the case or not.
Saima is currently sitting her final year exams of Medical School but is struggling to do well on her coursework. Her friend Sam is now a doctor and scored a merit in his coursework submission. He says he can share his submission from last year and even though they change all the questions he tells Saima she will find it useful.
How appropriate are the following responses by Saima in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This ensures that her work has not been externally influenced and everything is her own material. She is also making the most of the resources she has by asking Sam to help her.
Saima is currently sitting her final year exams of Medical School but is struggling to do well on her coursework. Her friend Sam is now a doctor and scored a merit in his course-work submission. He says he can share his submission from last year and even though they change all the questions he tells Saima she will find it useful
How appropriate are the following responses by Saima in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Rewording is the same as plagiarism. This constitutes unprofessional behaviour and even if she does reword the work it still has been hugely influenced by an external source.
Saima is currently sitting her final year exams of Medical School but is struggling to do well on her coursework. Her friend Sam is now a doctor and scored a merit in his course-work submission. He says he can share his submission from last year and even though they change all the questions he tells Saima she will find it useful
How appropriate are the following responses by Saima in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. This is still a very inappropriate thing to do as Sam should not have written down the questions as it becomes a probity issue. Once Salma views the question she is also culpable for the probity issue.

Sun, 31 Jul 2022 17:40:01
Understandably, it is dishonest to have the questions, but more so if the questions come up again. We have been told the questions do not reappear, so is this really the most inappropriate thing that she could have done?
Saima is currently sitting her final year exams of Medical School but is struggling to do well on her coursework. Her friend Sam is now a doctor and scored a merit in his course-work submission. He says he can share his submission from last year and even though they change all the questions he tells Saima she will find it useful
How appropriate are the following responses by Saima in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. This is appropriate as it shows Saima is using integrity to make sure she does produce her own work however it might have been useful to have a look at the submission. As a doctor / dentist, you will be regularly performing peer reviews and it’s important to be able to read a submission without replicating it.

Wed, 28 Jun 2023 15:13:46
OMG, nothing has followed in this question

Wed, 26 Jul 2023 07:55:58
Doesnt this answer disagree with the previous Q
Lisa is currently studying dentistry and is in her 3rd Year. It is a stressful time for all her colleagues and in the library her friend discloses that she has been raped by someone else on the course. Her friend wants to tell the police but she is too traumatised to do so and asks Lisa to comfort her and look after her through this time.
How important are the following factors to consider for Lisa in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. The person who committed the crime needs to be caught and the earlier the police are informed the quicker the crime can be resolved. It’s important that this didn’t say ‘force her friend’ as it is her decision at the end of the day.
Lisa is currently studying dentistry and is in her 3rd Year. It is a stressful time for all her colleagues and in the library her friend discloses that she has been raped by someone else on the course. Her friend wants to tell the police but she is too traumatised to do so and asks Lisa to comfort her and look after her through this time.
How important are the following factors to consider for Lisa in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. It is up to her friend if she wants the dental school to be told as she may prefer that they aren’t aware therefore it’s important to maintain her privacy. However, it has a small importance as it could help the dental school understand the circumstances she is in with exams approaching.
Lisa is currently studying dentistry and is in her 3rd Year. It is a stressful time for all her colleagues and in the library her friend discloses that she has been raped by someone else on the course. Her friend wants to tell the police but she is too traumatised to do so and asks Lisa to comfort her and look after her through this time.
How important are the following factors to consider for Lisa in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. It’s important that Lisa doesn’t neglect her own revision as passing exams is an important part of life however it’s not the MOST important thing at this current moment.

Tue, 05 Jul 2022 18:24:42
..... You can't be serious

Tue, 05 Jul 2022 21:00:06
You can't be serious

Tue, 02 Aug 2022 18:25:44
*Friend gets raped* GMC : 'Don't you dare stop revising!'

Sat, 06 Aug 2022 08:31:34
this could have been of minor importance I mean come onnn

Tue, 16 Aug 2022 21:52:44
That's straight up insane, whoever wrote this should not be a doctor/allowed anywhere near a hospital.

Thu, 18 Jul 2024 21:36:39
what
Lisa is currently studying dentistry and is in her 3rd Year. It is a stressful time for all her colleagues and in the library her friend discloses that she has been raped by someone else on the course. Her friend wants to tell the police but she is too traumatised to do so and asks Lisa to comfort her and look after her through this time.
How important are the following factors to consider for Lisa in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. It is clearly stated that the friend wants to be looked after and so it’s important that Lisa does everything she can do to support her friend in a difficult time. It is therefore a very important factor to consider.
Chris is a 5th Year Medical Student on his 4-week placement at a GP practice. Before his placement he is given an induction where he is told that all staff have to be ’bear below the elbow’. One of his colleagues who is a Muslim is his partner for the placement and comes to the placement wearing a niqab which covers her arms fully including below her elbows.
How important are the following actions by Chris in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. By taking initiative to speak to the colleague, it shows that he is able to make correct decisions when he is unsure. It might have just been that she is unaware or that she has a valid reason / been given permission to wear a niqab.
Chris is a 5th Year Medical Student on his 4-week placement at a GP practice. Before his placement he is given an induction where he is told that all staff have to be ’bear below the elbow’. One of his colleagues who is a Muslim is his partner for the placement and comes to the placement wearing a niqab which covers her arms fully including below her elbows.
How appropriate are the following actions by Chris in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. It is irresponsible to ignore the situation – there is a reason the ‘bear below the elbows’ policy is in place as it is for infection control. By turning a blind eye Chris is ignoring his duty to protect patients.
Chris is a 5th Year Medical Student on his 4-week placement at a GP practice. Before his placement he is given an induction where he is told that all staff have to be ’bear below the elbow’. One of his colleagues who is a Muslim is his partner for the placement and comes to the placement wearing a niqab which covers her arms fully including below her elbows.
How appropriate are the following actions by Chris in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. HR will be experts with dealing with a situation like this so getting some advice on how to deal with this before causing offence to the colleague is very important.
Top Tip: Before you respond to all parts of a question, flick through all parts as it could help you recognise that an aspect is more important than another.
Chris is a 5th Year Medical Student on his 4-week placement at a GP practice. Before his placement he is given an induction where he is told that all staff have to be ’bear below the elbow’. One of his colleagues who is a Muslim is his partner for the placement and comes to the placement wearing a niqab which covers her arms fully including below her elbows.
How appropriate are the following actions by Chris in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. This would constitute gossiping and isn’t important at this current moment. Some may argue that it would be better if the advice came from someone she knew however she may feel blindsided by this approach
Dr Reiss-Nelson is a senior registrar working in Geriatrics where he finds out a patient has been admitted with a fall and urinary incontinence. He is just about to take a history from them and realises that the man is his former medical school tutor
How important is it to consider the following factors for Dr Reiss-Nelson to consider when deciding how to respond?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. GMC Domain 1 – “wherever possible one should not treat someone who they have a close relationship with” – It is therefore a very important factor to consider.

Tue, 02 Aug 2022 18:28:39
I wouldn't think that teachers and tutors would be classed as a close relationship.
Dr Reiss-Nelson is a senior registrar working in Geriatrics where he finds out a patient has been admitted with a fall and urinary incontinence. He is just about to take a history from them and realises that the man is his former medical school tutor
How important is it to consider the following factors for Dr Reiss-Nelson to consider when deciding how to respond?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. It is important to take this into consideration when planning a discharge of the patient however it’s not the most pressing issue at this moment. What’s more important is dealing with the patient’s presenting complaint.
Dr Reiss-Nelson is a senior registrar working in Geriatrics where he finds out a patient has been admitted with a fall and urinary incontinence. He is just about to take a history from them and realises that the man is his former medical school tutor
How important is it to consider the following factors for Dr Reiss-Nelson to consider when deciding how to respond?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. As a doctor it’s important to be impartial at all times and you should not prioritise one patient over another just because a patient’s relative is demanding it. All patients should be treated in the same manner regardless of pressure from relatives.
Dr Reiss-Nelson is a senior registrar working in Geriatrics where he finds out a patient has been admitted with a fall and urinary incontinence. He is just about to take a history from them and realises that the man is his former medical school tutor
How important is it to consider the following factors for Dr Reiss-Nelson to consider when deciding how to respond?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Being a healthcare professional you should always ensure that you take care of yourself and never neglect your health. However, the patient’s safety is more important and it is likely he is the most senior doctor available.
Kai is a junior doctor and is are currently on his urology placement. As part of the placement he notices that one of the nurses Dorris has a urinary problem and has been using some of the catheters for her own use. He notes that the cost of one catheter is £350
How important are the following factors to consider for Kai in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Dorris is still being unprofessional by stealing the catheter for her own use however it’s important to appreciate that if she was stealing something a lot more expensive it would be more of a serious issue which means it is ‘of minor importance’
Kai is a junior doctor and is are currently on his urology placement. As part of the placement he notices that one of the nurses Dorris has a urinary problem and has been using some of the catheters for her own use. He notes that the cost of one catheter is £350
How important are the following factors to consider for Kai in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Again, it is important to consider that the medical problem as Kai can perhaps explain to her that she can get it treated however this cannot be used as an excuse for her behaviour.
Top Tip: Try and go for your gut feeling! It’s probably the case that you are right the first time round and overthinking can complicate the situation
Kai is a junior doctor and is are currently on his urology placement. As part of the placement he notices that one of the nurses Dorris has a urinary problem and has been using some of the catheters for her own use. He notes that the cost of one catheter is £350
How important are the following factors to consider for Kai in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. She is still a healthcare professional so the same standards of professionalism would be expected. Perhaps the consequences may be different as nurses have their own “GMC” but her role is not important in excusing her actions.
Kai is a junior doctor and is are currently on his urology placement. As part of the placement he notices that one of the nurses Dorris has a urinary problem and has been using some of the catheters for her own use. He notes that the cost of one catheter is £350
How appropriate is the following action for Kai in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. This action may be considered to be brash and ‘in the heat of the moment’ and it’s important to understand that there may be a legitimate reason behind her absence. The ‘immediate’ part also makes this D as it suggests Kai is being impulsive.

Tue, 02 Aug 2022 18:32:01
'Her absence'? What absence.
Chirag is a junior doctor on his first placement in general surgery. He is taking a history from a patient and he tells him he is in moderate pain. As a result, Chirag prescribes ibuprofen (mild painkiller). However, the nurse, Alex, disagrees with him and thinks that the patient should be on morphine (strong painkiller).
How appropriate are the following actions by Chirag in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. You should always seek the advice of a senior colleague if you are unsure about what to do however speaking to a registrar might be more appropriate as the consultant may be quite busy.
Chirag is a junior doctor on his first placement in general surgery. He is taking a history from a patient and he tells him he is in moderate pain. As a result, Chirag prescribes ibuprofen (mild painkiller). However, the nurse, Alex, disagrees with him and thinks that the patient should be on morphine (strong painkiller).
How appropriate are the following actions by Chirag in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. There is probably a valid reason why the nurse thinks the patient should be on morphine e.g. a drain fell out which can be painful but the patient hasn’t experienced the pain yet as it is latent. Communication is the key in difficult scenarios.
Chirag is a junior doctor on his first placement in general surgery. He is taking a history from a patient and he tells him he is in moderate pain. As a result, Chirag prescribes ibuprofen (mild painkiller). However, the nurse, Alex, disagrees with him and thinks that the patient should be on morphine (strong painkiller).
How appropriate are the following actions by Chirag in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. You should always consider the views of your colleagues – no matter what their role is. It is likely that they have worked as a nurse longer than Chirag has been a junior doctor and therefore are more experienced.
Chirag is a junior doctor on his first placement in general surgery. He is taking a history from a patient and he tells him he is in moderate pain. As a result, Chirag prescribes ibuprofen (mild painkiller). However, the nurse, Alex, disagrees with him and thinks that the patient should be on morphine (strong painkiller).
How appropriate are the following actions by Chirag in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. It is more likely that if two people agree then it is a better decision but you should appreciate that Chirag is likely to know just as much as the junior doctor so it could have just been that his colleague was afraid of the nurse! It is important to speak to someone more senior about the situation.
Susan is a 3rd year medical student currently on her cardiology placement with another colleague, Sanjay who she know only as an acquaintance. Sanjay frequently misses days of the placement and although he doesn’t tell Susan to cover for him he tells her that he isn’t coming in but does not give a reason for it.
How appropriate are the following actions by Susan in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Approaching the situation ‘heads on’ and directly is always the best way. Susan is taking the best possible first step by speaking to him and she can always escalate after once she has tried something initially.
Susan is a 3rd year medical student currently on her cardiology placement with another colleague, Sanjay who she know only as an acquaintance. Sanjay frequently misses days of the placement and although he doesn’t tell Susan to cover for him he tells her that he isn’t coming in but does not give a reason for it.
How appropriate are the following actions by Susan in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. This is very inappropriate as her colleague will continue to make the same mistakes. It is important that they learn from their actions and avoiding the situation is wrong. Whilst it may not be Susan’s place, Sanjay may be more likely to listen to her as a colleague.
Susan is a 3rd year medical student currently on her cardiology placement with another colleague, Sanjay who she know only as an acquaintance. Sanjay frequently misses days of the placement and although he doesn’t tell Susan to cover for him he tells her that he isn’t coming in but does not give a reason for it.
How appropriate are the following actions by Susan in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. This is wholly unprofessional and if the GP found out that Susan wasn’t telling the truth, it could put her future career in jeopardy. Even if Sanjay asks her to lie, it does not change the fact that it would be a very inappropriate thing to do.
Magnus is currently a 5th Year Medical Student on his Genitourinary Medicine placement which deals with problems such as sexually transmitted infections which can be a taboo for many. His friend Theo – who is not a medic – wants to speak to Magnus about some lesions he has found on his penis. He is too embarrassed to see a doctor so comes to Magnus for advice
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Magnus in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. It is clear from the outset that Theo was embarrassed about the problem therefore confided in Magnus and used his trust. Magnus has compromised this by discussing this and speaking to other people. Breaking confidentiality can have detrimental impacts on a patient’s willingness to comply with medical support
Magnus is currently a 5th Year Medical Student on his Genitourinary Medicine placement which deals with problems such as sexually transmitted infections which can be a taboo for many. His friend Theo – who is not a medic – wants to speak to Magnus about some lesions he has found on his penis. He is too embarrassed to see a doctor so comes to Magnus for advice
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Magnus in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. It is clear that Magnus is going with the right intentions by telling Theo what he ‘thinks’ it is which prevents it from being D. However, Magnus is not qualified to give information like this and it would be better to be aware of his own limitations.
Magnus is currently a 5th Year Medical Student on his Genitourinary Medicine placement which deals with problems such as sexually transmitted infections which can be a taboo for many. His friend Theo – who is not a medic – wants to speak to Magnus about some lesions he has found on his penis. He is too embarrassed to see a doctor so comes to Magnus for advice
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Magnus in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This is a very appropriate action as Magnus is aware of his own limitations but also is doing the best he can by supporting his friend. This is likely to be quite traumatising for Theo and so being there for him is always very appropriate.
Top Tip: Remember the “know your role” tutorial – Always act within your limits and medical students have different responsibilities to doctors.
Magnus is currently a 5th Year Medical Student on his Genitourinary Medicine placement which deals with problems such as sexually transmitted infections which can be a taboo for many. His friend Theo – who is not a medic – wants to speak to Magnus about some lesions he has found on his penis. He is too embarrassed to see a doctor so comes to Magnus for advice
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Magnus in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. It is good that Magnus has told Theo his limits and it ensures Theo doesn’t expect too much from him. However, he may still give the wrong information to questions related to the problem they have as only qualified professionals should do so
Top Tip: Remember the “know your role” tutorial – Always act within your limits and medical students have different responsibilities to doctors.

Sun, 15 Aug 2021 21:40:13
the explanation says the answer is a but the answer on the test is b
Amber is currently a first year medical student and in her summer holidays. She is asked by her boyfriend, Greg to accompany her to the GP surgery. Greg tells her he has some blood tests for some infections and Amber decides to wait outside as she is scared of needles. As Amber is waiting, she sees Greg’s sister Alice, who happens to be in the GP and asks Amber why Greg was in the GP.
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Amber in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This is a very honest answer and doesn’t come across as too rude either. It’s important to maintain Greg’s confidentiality as compromising it is against the code of conduct by the GMC
Amber is currently a first year medical student and in her summer holidays. She is asked by her boyfriend, Greg to accompany her to the GP surgery. Greg tells her he has some blood tests for some infections and Amber decides to wait outside as she is scared of needles. As Amber is waiting, she sees Greg’s sister Alice, who happens to be in the GP and asks Amber why Greg was in the GP.
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Amber in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Amber is breaking Greg’s confidentiality by telling Alice why he is at the GP. Although it may not be serious in Amber’s opinion, it might be to Greg so she should always get permission
Amber is currently a first year medical student and in her summer holidays. She is asked by her boyfriend, Greg to accompany her to the GP surgery. Greg tells her he has some blood tests for some infections and Amber decides to wait outside as she is scared of needles. As Amber is waiting, she sees Greg’s sister Alice, who happens to be in the GP and asks Amber why Greg was in the GP.
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Amber in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. Amber is breaking Greg’s confidentiality by telling Alice why he is at the GP. Although it may not be serious in Amber’s opinion, it might be to Greg so she should always get permission.
Sadio is a 4th Year Dental Student at Manchester. He recently attended a party with his friends and found out that that one of his colleagues, Roberto who is also a dental student, is smoking marijuana
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Sadio in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. It would be worth getting some advice from someone who is in charge but also not too senior as it will allow Sadop to understand how severe the matter is. It is not ‘A’ because ideally the colleague should be doing this.
Sadio is a 4th Year Dental Student at Manchester. He recently attended a party with his friends and found out that that one of his colleagues, Roberto who is also a dental student, is smoking marijuana
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Sadio in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. It is clear that what Roberto has done is wrong however Sadio should still first speak to the colleague and let him report this to the dental school. Sadio could cause Roberto a lot of stress and make him lose trust in him.
Top Tip: If there was a case where patient safety was immediately at risk then it would be absolutely justifiable to report to the dental school.
Sadio is a 4th Year Dental Student at Manchester. He recently attended a party with his friends and found out that that one of his colleagues, Roberto who is also a dental student, is smoking marijuana
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Sadio in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. This is clearly wrong as what they are doing is illegal and it is just as wrong as being a passive bystander as being involved in what happened.
Top Tip: It is clear that this is an extreme response and therefore it is likely to be either “D” or “A”. Now ask yourself is it positive or negative? It’s negative therefore it is “D”.
Sadio is a 4th Year Dental Student at Manchester. He recently attended a party with his friends and found out that that one of his colleagues, Roberto who is also a dental student, is smoking marijuana
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Sadio in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. It may be the case that they are aware that a mistake has happened and that they were going to report it anyway. This is likely to lead to the best possible result for all.

Wed, 22 Sep 2021 09:41:24
How likely is it that he would actually report it himself? I believe the answer for this should be 'appropriate but not ideal'.
Samantha is a newly qualified registrar (more senior than junior doctor) in palliative care. She is looking after Barnaby, a 93 year old man with prostate cancer. She over-hears one of the more senior registrars who is getting the mother’s consent for the patient’s organs to be used for transplant. Later on, she speaks to the mother who tells Samantha that she was forced into a corner and doesn’t really want the organ donation to take place anymore.
How appropriate are the following responses by Samantha in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. There is always something that Samantha can do – no matter how small it is. Whilst she may not be able to rectify the situation completely, she is able to find out why the mother feels this way.
Samantha is a newly qualified registrar (more senior than junior doctor) in palliative care. She is looking after Barnaby, a 93 year old man with prostate cancer. She over-hears one of the more senior registrars who is getting the mother’s consent for the patient’s organs to be used for transplant. Later on, she speaks to the mother who tells Samantha that she was forced into a corner and doesn’t really want the organ donation to take place anymore.
How appropriate are the following responses by Samantha in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This is the best way of dealing with the situation as she is getting the bigger picture and speaking directly to the doctor involved which will allow them to understand exactly what is going on.
Samantha is a newly qualified registrar (more senior than junior doctor) in palliative care. She is looking after Barnaby, a 93 year old man with prostate cancer. She over-hears one of the more senior registrars who is getting the mother’s consent for the patient’s organs to be used for transplant. Later on, she speaks to the mother who tells Samantha that she was forced into a corner and doesn’t really want the organ donation to take place anymore.
How appropriate are the following responses by Samantha in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Exploring concerns is always the best approach with a scenario like this. It could be that they are unsure about a detail with regards to the donation and this can easily be cleared up.
Top Tip: Just because one answer is already “very appropriate” it doesn’t mean that there can’t be 4 very appropriate things to do as in this example
Samantha is a newly qualified registrar (more senior than junior doctor) in palliative care. She is looking after Barnaby, a 93 year old man with prostate cancer. She over-hears one of the more senior registrars who is getting the mother’s consent for the patient’s organs to be used for transplant. Later on, she speaks to the mother who tells Samantha that she was forced into a corner and doesn’t really want the organ donation to take place anymore.
How appropriate are the following responses by Samantha in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. It is unlikely that the patient will appreciate Samantha pawning off the concerns onto someone else and so it’s better to respond to this with the party involved – even though the consultant is more senior.
Ken is currently a junior doctor working on a night shift and has been given the jobs list for the day. This comprises of tasks such as discharging patients, taking a history of patients already on the ward and prescribing painkillers to a patient in a lot of pain.
How important are the following factors for Ken to consider in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. It’s good to be aware of all the roles in a MDT. Independent prescribers are able to prescribe certain medications however it is limited to certain drugs which could/could not be the pain medication which means it is B and not A.
Ken is currently a junior doctor working on a night shift and has been given the jobs list for the day. This comprises of tasks such as discharging patients, taking a history of patients already on the ward and prescribing painkillers to a patient in a lot of pain.
How important are the following factors for Ken to consider in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. In a scenario where you are struggling – it’s always paramount to get help. However, it is likely that Ken will annoy his colleague by asking them to work during their break so an alternative such as asking them to work with him now and offering part of his break later on in exchange would be a better alternative.
Top Tip: If you are ever unsure and you see an option to seek assistance or advice from someone senior it will always be important/appropriate

Mon, 05 Sep 2022 11:05:20
Struggling?? The question is not clear, it doesn't say that Ken is struggling. The scenario could have been worded better
Ken is currently a junior doctor working on a night shift and has been given the jobs list for the day. This comprises of tasks such as discharging patients, taking a history of patients already on the ward and prescribing painkillers to a patient in a lot of pain.
How important are the following factors for Ken to consider in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This is extremely important as it will allow Ken to identify what needs to be done most urgently and helps Ken to structure what sounds like quite an overwhelming shift.
Ken is currently a junior doctor working on a night shift and has been given the jobs list for the day. This comprises of tasks such as discharging patients, taking a history of patients already on the ward and prescribing painkillers to a patient in a lot of pain.
How important are the following factors for Ken to consider in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Whilst some might argue that discharging patients is most pressing as people are waiting to go home, it’s better to come up with a structured plan rather than diving into the first task Ken thinks of.
Top Tip: The SJT is at the end of a tiring set of 4 sections. Before starting, take 20-30s to reconvene your thoughts. Even give yourself a mini pep-talk that you’ve almost reached the end!
Sen is a practicing dentist who has just completed a procedure for a patient and while he is documenting the serial number of the anaesthetic used, he realises he inputted the wrong serial number for the previous procedure. The current patient is in a rush and he has a few patients waiting after this one
How appropriate are the following responses by Sen in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. It is wrong to hide away what you have done – whenever a mistake has been made there is almost always a protocol to follow. Whilst it seems appropriate to finish up with the current patient, the actions after this make it a very inappropriate thing to do.
Sen is a practicing dentist who has just completed a procedure for a patient and while he is documenting the serial number of the anaesthetic used, he realises he inputted the wrong serial number for the previous procedure. The current patient is in a rush and he has a few patients waiting after this one
How appropriate are the following responses by Sen in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Mistakes like this can happen and often other colleagues have been through the same so asking for advice is always appropriate. It is important that you maintain confidentiality in doing so.
Sen is a practicing dentist who has just completed a procedure for a patient and while he is documenting the serial number of the anaesthetic used, he realises he inputted the wrong serial number for the previous procedure. The current patient is in a rush and he has a few patients waiting after this one
How appropriate are the following responses by Sen in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. This is quite a difficult one and you have to think about the immediate impact. The patient who is in a rush may lose trust in Sen as a professional and may walk out if they find they have to wait for a long period of time. However, it is also appropriate that Sen deals with the matter as fast as possible. Letting the patient complete their current procedure will not cause a detrimental impact overall.

Sat, 04 Sep 2021 03:41:13
It was previously mentioned that correcting an error was a very inappropriate thing to do, so how is this appropriate but not ideal?

Thu, 10 Mar 2022 12:43:23
Hi, thank you for your question! It is very inappropriate if an error is corrected in an attempt to conceal it. In this case, since the error is corrected after informing/apologising to the patient, it is appropriate.
Sen is a practicing dentist who has just completed a procedure for a patient and while he is documenting the serial number of the anaesthetic used, he realises he inputted the wrong serial number for the previous procedure. The current patient is in a rush and he has a few patients waiting after this one
How appropriate are the following responses by Sen in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Sen is doing the right thing by owning up to his mistake and whilst this could lead to a disciplinary action the fact that he acted promptly will work in his favour.
Sen is a practicing dentist who has just completed a procedure for a patient and while he is documenting the serial number of the anaesthetic used, he realises he inputted the wrong serial number for the previous procedure. The current patient is in a rush and he has a few patients waiting after this one
How appropriate are the following responses by Sen in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. This is compromising patient safety as if something does go wrong with the aesthetic it is important that we have the serial number so we can find out what was wrong with it.
Hashim is a 3rd Year Medical Student who is on the gastroenterology ward. The junior doctor he is shadowing asks her to carry out a lumbar puncture as Hashim has seen her do it a million times.
How appropriate are the following responses by Hashim in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is D. This is compromising patient safety as Hashim is not qualified to carry out this procedure – even under supervision.
Hashim is a 3rd Year Medical Student who is on the gastroenterology ward. The junior doctor he is shadowing asks her to carry out a lumbar puncture as Hashim has seen her do it a million times.
How appropriate are the following responses by Hashim in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Hashim is doing the right thing by telling the doctor that it is beyond his capacity to do so however there is always something he can do to assist. Doing his own work is not the most productive for the team. Whilst Hashim is being ‘safe’ he isn’t offering the best option

Sun, 04 Sep 2022 19:18:00
surely he's going to do the procedure at one point and if the junior dr thinks he's qualified enough, shouldn't he just do it? - it mentions nothing about him being scared etc and as long as he's supervised it should be fine right?
Hashim is a 3rd Year Medical Student who is on the gastroenterology ward. The junior doctor he is shadowing asks her to carry out a lumbar puncture as Hashim has seen her do it a million times.
How appropriate are the following responses by Hashim in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is A. This is a preferred alternative to the previous scenario. Here Hashim is doing everything necessary to maximise the situation at hand.
Top Tip: Whenever you’re stuck, ask yourself if I was telling a doctor / dentist this situation what would they tell me? Would they say to do the procedure?
Hashim is a 3rd Year Medical Student who is on the gastroenterology ward. The junior doctor he is shadowing asks her to carry out a lumbar puncture as Hashim has seen her do it a million times.
How appropriate are the following responses by Hashim in this situation?
Explanation
The correct answer is C. It is good that Hashim is willing to speak to someone as he doesn’t feel comfortable. however it would be much better to speak to the doctor in question. This could complicate things and cause more problems
Ediz is currently at Glasgow University studying Medicine and is carrying out a group project. Two of his colleagues Xio-An and Ola have a disagreement and he finds out later on that Ola forgot to do his side of the project.
Explanation
Most Appropriate: It’s best to tackle this head on and by getting the two individuals who are affected by this in discussion, it can help create some harmony in the group.
Least Appropriate: Ediz is perhaps overcomplicating the issue when it would be easier to find out more details about what has happened. Although Ola forgot, it is something that can easily be repaired without contacting anyone senior.
The other option is in-between as it’s good that Ediz is taking action directly with Ola, however he is not listening to his side
Anfo is a junior doctor working in A&E. He is just about to leave the hospital at the end of his shift when there is a call for an emergency. One of the receptionists spots his stethoscope and asks if he can help out
Explanation
Most Appropriate: In an emergency setting, doctors always have a duty of care and not attending the emergency would be unprofessional. When he attends he might find that help isn’t needed so can go home but should go to make sure
Least Appropriate: Anfo is lying here just to get out of a situation where he probably wants to go home. This would be the wrong thing to do
The other option is in-between as Anfo is approaching the situation in a delicate manner but also should still be attending even if he is tired

Sun, 28 Aug 2022 11:59:04
I think I got this correct?

Mon, 23 Jan 2023 12:58:21
Got this correct but marked wrong
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TI-108
Wed, 18 Aug 2021 15:19:53
"The Spanish language was originally derived from Latin on the Iberian Peninsula by the Romans in 210 BC"- does this not also make C correct?
Fri, 20 Aug 2021 13:40:21
This is wrong. The largest contributor could be like 10% if the others are lower (it implies there are many others). The statement says derived 'MOSTLY' from Latin implying over 50%.
Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:27:14
Is this a mistake?
Sun, 22 Aug 2021 14:37:20
It says that the Spanish language was originally derived from Latin in 210 BC. Meaning that the answer could have been either C or D as they are both mentioned in the opening statement.
Sat, 30 Jul 2022 15:18:19
It is D as the variables presentr show the hidden variable in the passage and its authenticity is proved in later wording as its puntuality is more so added to the common agenda so it is there for theoretically and abudantly the right supreme answer.
Thu, 15 Sep 2022 19:04:27
poo