Verbal Reasoning Practice Subtest Instructions

In this section of the exam, you will be presented with 11 passages to read, each associated with 4 questions.

Some questions assess critical reasoning skills, requiring candidates to make inferences and draw conclusions from information. You will need to read the passage of text carefully. You will then be presented with a question or incomplete statement and four response options. You are required to pick the best or most suitable response.

For other questions your task is to read each passage of text carefully and then decide whether the statement provided follows logically.

There are three answer options you can choose from:

True: On the basis of the information in the passage, the statement is true.

False: On the basis of the information in the passage, the statement is false.

Can’t Tell: You cannot tell from the information in the passage whether the statement is true or false.

Candidates will only be able to select one response.

It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.

Click the Next (N) button to proceed.

The Spanish language was originally derived from Latin on the Iberian Peninsula by the Romans in 210 BC. Over time, the Spanish language began borrowing words and grammar from several other Roman languages such as Iberian, Celtic, Celtiberian and Basque. The Spanish language began to be heavily influenced by many of what we know today as Romance languages such as French, Italian and Portuguese. The largest contributor to most Romance languages and especially the Spanish language is Latin.

Some even go as far as to say Latin is both the mother and the father of modern Spanish.Surprising to some, Arabic is another language that has heavily influenced Spanish. In the early 700’s CE, Arab armies invaded the Iberian Peninsula and began an occupation that lasted hundreds of years. This occupation had a tremendous influence on the modern Spanish language because a significant amount of Arabic words were integrated into Spanish at this time.

To this day there are about 4000 words, or 8% of the Spanish language, with Arabic origins. Shortly after the Arabs were expelled from the majority of the Iberian Peninsula in the 13th century, King Alfonso X declared Spanish as the official language of Spain and mandated that all official documents were to be written Spanish. This is where the standard Castilian version of Spanish was formally introduced that is still in use today.

It was after this time the Spanish language began to become distinctive from the other Romance languages, particularly Latin, in the way it pronounced its words.  This change gradually began to take hold throughout the 15th and 16th centuries. During this time the first official book on Spanish language grammar was written called Gramática de la Lengua Castellana.

(Adapted from https://spanishwithstyle.com/the-evolution-of-the-spanish-language/)

Question 1. The modern Spanish language:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D. This is true because Latin is the biggest contributor to the Spanish language, according to the passage. 

    Post Comment
    Bethan Hunter Medicmind Tutor

    Wed, 18 Aug 2021 15:19:53

    "The Spanish language was originally derived from Latin on the Iberian Peninsula by the Romans in 210 BC"- does this not also make C correct?

    Chris Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 20 Aug 2021 13:40:21

    This is wrong. The largest contributor could be like 10% if the others are lower (it implies there are many others). The statement says derived 'MOSTLY' from Latin implying over 50%.

    lotta Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:27:14

    Is this a mistake?

    Joe Beckham Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 14:37:20

    It says that the Spanish language was originally derived from Latin in 210 BC. Meaning that the answer could have been either C or D as they are both mentioned in the opening statement.

    The Spanish language was originally derived from Latin on the Iberian Peninsula by the Romans in 210 BC. Over time, the Spanish language began borrowing words and grammar from several other Roman languages such as Iberian, Celtic, Celtiberian and Basque. The Spanish language began to be heavily influenced by many of what we know today as Romance languages such as French, Italian and Portuguese. The largest contributor to most Romance languages and especially the Spanish language is Latin.

    Some even go as far as to say Latin is both the mother and the father of modern Spanish.Surprising to some, Arabic is another language that has heavily influenced Spanish. In the early 700’s CE, Arab armies invaded the Iberian Peninsula and began an occupation that lasted hundreds of years. This occupation had a tremendous influence on the modern Spanish language because a significant amount of Arabic words were integrated into Spanish at this time.

    To this day there are about 4000 words, or 8% of the Spanish language, with Arabic origins. Shortly after the Arabs were expelled from the majority of the Iberian Peninsula in the 13th century, King Alfonso X declared Spanish as the official language of Spain and mandated that all official documents were to be written Spanish. This is where the standard Castilian version of Spanish was formally introduced that is still in use today.

    It was after this time the Spanish language began to become distinctive from the other Romance languages, particularly Latin, in the way it pronounced its words.  This change gradually began to take hold throughout the 15th and 16th centuries. During this time the first official book on Spanish language grammar was written called Gramática de la Lengua Castellana.

    (Adapted from https://spanishwithstyle.com/the-evolution-of-the-spanish-language/)

    Question 2 The Arabs:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D. The passage states that around 4000 words have Arabic origins, so we can conclude that statement D is correct.

    Post Comment

    The Spanish language was originally derived from Latin on the Iberian Peninsula by the Romans in 210 BC. Over time, the Spanish language began borrowing words and grammar from several other Roman languages such as Iberian, Celtic, Celtiberian and Basque. The Spanish language began to be heavily influenced by many of what we know today as Romance languages such as French, Italian and Portuguese. The largest contributor to most Romance languages and especially the Spanish language is Latin.

    Some even go as far as to say Latin is both the mother and the father of modern Spanish.Surprising to some, Arabic is another language that has heavily influenced Spanish. In the early 700’s CE, Arab armies invaded the Iberian Peninsula and began an occupation that lasted hundreds of years. This occupation had a tremendous influence on the modern Spanish language because a significant amount of Arabic words were integrated into Spanish at this time.

    To this day there are about 4000 words, or 8% of the Spanish language, with Arabic origins. Shortly after the Arabs were expelled from the majority of the Iberian Peninsula in the 13th century, King Alfonso X declared Spanish as the official language of Spain and mandated that all official documents were to be written Spanish. This is where the standard Castilian version of Spanish was formally introduced that is still in use today.

    It was after this time the Spanish language began to become distinctive from the other Romance languages, particularly Latin, in the way it pronounced its words.  This change gradually began to take hold throughout the 15th and 16th centuries. During this time the first official book on Spanish language grammar was written called Gramática de la Lengua Castellana.

    (Adapted from https://spanishwithstyle.com/the-evolution-of-the-spanish-language/)

    Question 3 The Spanish language:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. Although the passage states that major changes in the Spanish language occurred throughout history, we are told that it was originally derived from the Romans around 210 BC. Therefore, we know that it is over 2000 years old.

    Post Comment
    Lotta Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:00:42

    Why is C wrong? Also I thought we weren't allowed to bring in our own knowledge - how do we know what year it is now?

    elizabeth Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 10 Sep 2021 21:58:37

    i do not understand why is C wrong as well and to be honest i do not know 210 BC would be more than 2000 years ago, this is outside knowledge

    The Spanish language was originally derived from Latin on the Iberian Peninsula by the Romans in 210 BC. Over time, the Spanish language began borrowing words and grammar from several other Roman languages such as Iberian, Celtic, Celtiberian and Basque. The Spanish language began to be heavily influenced by many of what we know today as Romance languages such as French, Italian and Portuguese. The largest contributor to most Romance languages and especially the Spanish language is Latin.

    Some even go as far as to say Latin is both the mother and the father of modern Spanish.Surprising to some, Arabic is another language that has heavily influenced Spanish. In the early 700’s CE, Arab armies invaded the Iberian Peninsula and began an occupation that lasted hundreds of years. This occupation had a tremendous influence on the modern Spanish language because a significant amount of Arabic words were integrated into Spanish at this time.

    To this day there are about 4000 words, or 8% of the Spanish language, with Arabic origins. Shortly after the Arabs were expelled from the majority of the Iberian Peninsula in the 13th century, King Alfonso X declared Spanish as the official language of Spain and mandated that all official documents were to be written Spanish. This is where the standard Castilian version of Spanish was formally introduced that is still in use today.

    It was after this time the Spanish language began to become distinctive from the other Romance languages, particularly Latin, in the way it pronounced its words.  This change gradually began to take hold throughout the 15th and 16th centuries. During this time the first official book on Spanish language grammar was written called Gramática de la Lengua Castellana.

    (Adapted from https://spanishwithstyle.com/the-evolution-of-the-spanish-language/)

    Question 4 Which of the following statements is true?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D. We know that Gramática de la Lengua Castellana was the first official book on Spanish grammar, and that Spanish grammar was influenced by Roman languages, including Iberian. Therefore, we can assume that Gramática de la Lengua Castellana was influenced by Iberian.

    Top tip: This question is difficult as it requires you to synthesise two pieces of information found in different parts of the text. Remember that to make this inference, you need evidence that the book is on Spanish grammar and that Spanish grammar itself had Roman influences.

    Common trap: Read the question carefully as some of these answer options rely on you being confused between Roman and Romance languages. From the passage, Iberian, Celtic, Celtiberian and Basque are Roman languages while French, Italian and Portugese are Romance languages.

     

    Post Comment

    IP home security cameras are Internet-connected security cameras that can be installed in people’s homes and remotely monitored via the web. These cameras are growing in popularity and the global market is expected to reach $1.3 billion by 2023. Research carried out by experts from Queen Mary, University of London showed that the information generated by the cameras could be monitored by attackers and used to predict when a house is occupied or not.

    The researchers even found that future activity in the house could be predicted based on past information generated by the camera. They confirmed that attackers could detect when the camera was uploading motion, and even distinguish between certain types of motion, such as sitting or running. Dr Gareth Tyson, Senior Lecturer at Queen Mary University of London, said: “Once considered a luxury item, these cameras are now commonplace in homes worldwide. By understanding these risks, we can now look to propose ways to minimise the risks and protect user privacy.”

    (Adapted from https://www.qmul.ac.uk/media/news/2020/se/new-research-reveals-privacy-risks-of-home-security-cameras.html )

    Question 5 IP home security cameras only require a remote to control.
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. This is not true as the passage states that the cameras are remotely monitored (not using a remote) using the internet. This statement is therefore untrue.

    Post Comment

    IP home security cameras are Internet-connected security cameras that can be installed in people’s homes and remotely monitored via the web. These cameras are growing in popularity and the global market is expected to reach $1.3 billion by 2023. Research carried out by experts from Queen Mary, University of London showed that the information generated by the cameras could be monitored by attackers and used to predict when a house is occupied or not.

    The researchers even found that future activity in the house could be predicted based on past information generated by the camera. They confirmed that attackers could detect when the camera was uploading motion, and even distinguish between certain types of motion, such as sitting or running. Dr Gareth Tyson, Senior Lecturer at Queen Mary University of London, said: “Once considered a luxury item, these cameras are now commonplace in homes worldwide. By understanding these risks, we can now look to propose ways to minimise the risks and protect user privacy.”

    (Adapted from https://www.qmul.ac.uk/media/news/2020/se/new-research-reveals-privacy-risks-of-home-security-cameras.html )

    Question 6 Information from security cameras can be used by authorities to detect when people are in the house.
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.  Although the text says that attackers are able to monitor the system, we are not told whether authorities will be able to do the same. The correct answer, therefore, is C.

    Common trap: It is important not to assume that something will happen in the true/false VR questions. In this question, for example, presumably the authorities will also be able to access this information. However, since there is no mention in the text, we cannot select option A as there is no concrete evidence.

    Post Comment

    IP home security cameras are Internet-connected security cameras that can be installed in people’s homes and remotely monitored via the web. These cameras are growing in popularity and the global market is expected to reach $1.3 billion by 2023. Research carried out by experts from Queen Mary, University of London showed that the information generated by the cameras could be monitored by attackers and used to predict when a house is occupied or not.

    The researchers even found that future activity in the house could be predicted based on past information generated by the camera. They confirmed that attackers could detect when the camera was uploading motion, and even distinguish between certain types of motion, such as sitting or running. Dr Gareth Tyson, Senior Lecturer at Queen Mary University of London, said: “Once considered a luxury item, these cameras are now commonplace in homes worldwide. By understanding these risks, we can now look to propose ways to minimise the risks and protect user privacy.”

    (Adapted from https://www.qmul.ac.uk/media/news/2020/se/new-research-reveals-privacy-risks-of-home-security-cameras.html )

    Question 7 The information generated by the camera when someone is running is different to the information generated when they are sitting.
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. Explanation: this is true because we are told that the attackers are able to use information from the camera to distinguish between different types of motion. Therefore, we can deduce that option A is correct.

    Post Comment

    IP home security cameras are Internet-connected security cameras that can be installed in people’s homes and remotely monitored via the web. These cameras are growing in popularity and the global market is expected to reach $1.3 billion by 2023. Research carried out by experts from Queen Mary, University of London showed that the information generated by the cameras could be monitored by attackers and used to predict when a house is occupied or not.

    The researchers even found that future activity in the house could be predicted based on past information generated by the camera. They confirmed that attackers could detect when the camera was uploading motion, and even distinguish between certain types of motion, such as sitting or running. Dr Gareth Tyson, Senior Lecturer at Queen Mary University of London, said: “Once considered a luxury item, these cameras are now commonplace in homes worldwide. By understanding these risks, we can now look to propose ways to minimise the risks and protect user privacy.”

    (Adapted from https://www.qmul.ac.uk/media/news/2020/se/new-research-reveals-privacy-risks-of-home-security-cameras.html )

    Question 8 Many people worldwide are at risk of attacks on their home security.
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. This is true, because we are told that these cameras are now commonplace and therefore many people have them now. The article is about the risk of these cameras being exploited by attackers and therefore option A is true.

    Post Comment

    The Hawaiian Islands were first settled as early as 400 C.E., when Polynesians from the Marquesas Islands, 2000 miles away, travelled to Hawaii’s Big Island in canoes. Highly skilled farmers and fishermen, Hawaiians lived in small communities ruled by chieftains who battled one another for territory.

    Following Captain James Cook’s arrival to Hawaii in 1778, the first Christian missionaries arrived in 1820. Shortly afterward, Western traders came to the islands, bringing with them diseases that devastated the native Hawaiian population. Hawaiians had numbered about 300,000 when Cook arrived. By 1853, the native population was down to 70,000. In the 1890s, the last Hawaiian ruler, Queen Lili’uokalani was deposed, imprisoned and forced to abdicate.

    In 1893, American colonists established the Republic of Hawaii. December 7, 1941, still lives in infamy as the day more than 2,300 Americans were killed in the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, on the island of Oahu. The U.S.S. Arizona, which sank with 1,100 men aboard, was turned into a memorial in 1962. The attack forced U.S. involvement in World War II, which ended with an unconditional Japanese surrender, signed on September 2, 1945, on the U.S.S. Battleship Missouri. Today, World War II buffs can tour the Missouri, which is still anchored in Pearl Harbor.

    Question 9 The Hawaiian Islands:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. We are told that the Islands were first settled in 400 C.E., so option A is true.

    Post Comment

    The Hawaiian Islands were first settled as early as 400 C.E., when Polynesians from the Marquesas Islands, 2000 miles away, travelled to Hawaii’s Big Island in canoes. Highly skilled farmers and fishermen, Hawaiians lived in small communities ruled by chieftains who battled one another for territory.

    Following Captain James Cook’s arrival to Hawaii in 1778, the first Christian missionaries arrived in 1820. Shortly afterward, Western traders came to the islands, bringing with them diseases that devastated the native Hawaiian population. Hawaiians had numbered about 300,000 when Cook arrived. By 1853, the native population was down to 70,000. In the 1890s, the last Hawaiian ruler, Queen Lili’uokalani was deposed, imprisoned and forced to abdicate.

    In 1893, American colonists established the Republic of Hawaii. December 7, 1941, still lives in infamy as the day more than 2,300 Americans were killed in the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, on the island of Oahu. The U.S.S. Arizona, which sank with 1,100 men aboard, was turned into a memorial in 1962. The attack forced U.S. involvement in World War II, which ended with an unconditional Japanese surrender, signed on September 2, 1945, on the U.S.S. Battleship Missouri. Today, World War II buffs can tour the Missouri, which is still anchored in Pearl Harbor.

    Question 10 The population of Hawaii:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. In the passage, it states that Queen Lili’uokalani was the last ruler of Hawaii. We can infer that option C is true.

    Post Comment
    elizabeth Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 10 Sep 2021 22:00:56

    why is B incorrect? i wish the answer would explain why the others aren't right as well

    elizabeth Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 10 Sep 2021 22:01:54

    oh nvm it's just calculation error but do wish explaination will be given

    The Hawaiian Islands were first settled as early as 400 C.E., when Polynesians from the Marquesas Islands, 2000 miles away, travelled to Hawaii’s Big Island in canoes. Highly skilled farmers and fishermen, Hawaiians lived in small communities ruled by chieftains who battled one another for territory.

    Following Captain James Cook’s arrival to Hawaii in 1778, the first Christian missionaries arrived in 1820. Shortly afterward, Western traders came to the islands, bringing with them diseases that devastated the native Hawaiian population. Hawaiians had numbered about 300,000 when Cook arrived. By 1853, the native population was down to 70,000. In the 1890s, the last Hawaiian ruler, Queen Lili’uokalani was deposed, imprisoned and forced to abdicate.

    In 1893, American colonists established the Republic of Hawaii. December 7, 1941, still lives in infamy as the day more than 2,300 Americans were killed in the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, on the island of Oahu. The U.S.S. Arizona, which sank with 1,100 men aboard, was turned into a memorial in 1962. The attack forced U.S. involvement in World War II, which ended with an unconditional Japanese surrender, signed on September 2, 1945, on the U.S.S. Battleship Missouri. Today, World War II buffs can tour the Missouri, which is still anchored in Pearl Harbor.

    Question 11 The Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. This is true because in the passage it states that over 2300 Americans were killed in the attack. A is correct but is not the right answer because we are not told whether Oahu is in Hawaii. C is incorrect as we are told in the last paragraph that Japanese troops surrendered. D is incorrect as in the last paragraph we are told that only 1 ship sunk – the U.S.S. Arizona.

    Common trap: Option A is correct; however, this is not mentioned in the passage. If you think two options could be correct, try and find evidence in the passage for each one.

    Post Comment

    The Hawaiian Islands were first settled as early as 400 C.E., when Polynesians from the Marquesas Islands, 2000 miles away, travelled to Hawaii’s Big Island in canoes. Highly skilled farmers and fishermen, Hawaiians lived in small communities ruled by chieftains who battled one another for territory.

    Following Captain James Cook’s arrival to Hawaii in 1778, the first Christian missionaries arrived in 1820. Shortly afterward, Western traders came to the islands, bringing with them diseases that devastated the native Hawaiian population. Hawaiians had numbered about 300,000 when Cook arrived. By 1853, the native population was down to 70,000. In the 1890s, the last Hawaiian ruler, Queen Lili’uokalani was deposed, imprisoned and forced to abdicate.

    In 1893, American colonists established the Republic of Hawaii. December 7, 1941, still lives in infamy as the day more than 2,300 Americans were killed in the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, on the island of Oahu. The U.S.S. Arizona, which sank with 1,100 men aboard, was turned into a memorial in 1962. The attack forced U.S. involvement in World War II, which ended with an unconditional Japanese surrender, signed on September 2, 1945, on the U.S.S. Battleship Missouri. Today, World War II buffs can tour the Missouri, which is still anchored in Pearl Harbor.

    Question 12 Which of the following statements is true based on the information in the passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.  The passage initially states that the Polynesian people of the Marquesas Islands first settled in Hawaii. Therefore, we can infer that the natives in Hawaii have Polynesian ethnicity. A, C and D are not correct as we are not given this information in the passage.

    Common trap: Do not use your own knowledge in the VR section. This is a common mistake which costs candidates many marks, but all information used to find out the answer should be found in the passage.

    Post Comment

    Playing video games, including violent shooter games, may boost children’s learning, health and social skills, according to a review of research in American Psychologist.

    The study comes out as debate continues among psychologists and other health professionals regarding the effects of violent media on youth. An APA task force is conducting a comprehensive review of research on violence in video games and interactive media and will release its findings later this year.

    “Important research has already been conducted for decades on the negative effects of gaming, including addiction, depression and aggression, and we are certainly not suggesting that this should be ignored,” says Isabela Granic, PhD, of Radboud University Nijmegen in The Netherlands, lead author of the article. “However, to understand the impact of video games on children’s and adolescents’ development, a more balanced perspective is needed.”

    While one widely held view maintains that playing video games is intellectually lazy, such play actually may strengthen a range of cognitive skills such as spatial navigation, reasoning, memory and perception, according to several studies reviewed in the article. This is particularly true for shooter video games, which are often violent, the authors found. A 2013 meta-analysis found that playing shooter video games improved a player’s capacity to think about objects in three dimensions just as well as academic courses designed to enhance these same skills, according to the study.

    (Taken from https://www.apa.org/monitor/2014/02/video-game)

    Question 13 The promotion of violent video games is controversial because:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. At the start of paragraph 2, the text documents some negative aspects associated with gaming. A is incorrect we are told in the first paragraph that they may boost children’s learning and social skills. B is also incorrect because we are told that the review has not yet been completed and the findings haven’t yet been released. D is incorrect as in the last paragraph we are told that playing video game may ‘strengthen a range of cognitive skills.

    Top tip: this is a statement type question. Remember that the best approach to these questions is to read the introduction and pick the keyword, then read around the keyword to find the correct answer.

    Post Comment

    Playing video games, including violent shooter games, may boost children’s learning, health and social skills, according to a review of research in American Psychologist.

    The study comes out as debate continues among psychologists and other health professionals regarding the effects of violent media on youth. An APA task force is conducting a comprehensive review of research on violence in video games and interactive media and will release its findings later this year.

    “Important research has already been conducted for decades on the negative effects of gaming, including addiction, depression and aggression, and we are certainly not suggesting that this should be ignored,” says Isabela Granic, PhD, of Radboud University Nijmegen in The Netherlands, lead author of the article. “However, to understand the impact of video games on children’s and adolescents’ development, a more balanced perspective is needed.”

    While one widely held view maintains that playing video games is intellectually lazy, such play actually may strengthen a range of cognitive skills such as spatial navigation, reasoning, memory and perception, according to several studies reviewed in the article. This is particularly true for shooter video games, which are often violent, the authors found. A 2013 meta-analysis found that playing shooter video games improved a player’s capacity to think about objects in three dimensions just as well as academic courses designed to enhance these same skills, according to the study.

    (Taken from https://www.apa.org/monitor/2014/02/video-game)

    Question 14 The aim of the review was to:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D. At the end of paragraph 2, the passage states that the lead of the review wanted to provide a more balanced perspective on the impact of video games.

    Post Comment

    Playing video games, including violent shooter games, may boost children’s learning, health and social skills, according to a review of research in American Psychologist.

    The study comes out as debate continues among psychologists and other health professionals regarding the effects of violent media on youth. An APA task force is conducting a comprehensive review of research on violence in video games and interactive media and will release its findings later this year.

    “Important research has already been conducted for decades on the negative effects of gaming, including addiction, depression and aggression, and we are certainly not suggesting that this should be ignored,” says Isabela Granic, PhD, of Radboud University Nijmegen in The Netherlands, lead author of the article. “However, to understand the impact of video games on children’s and adolescents’ development, a more balanced perspective is needed.”

    While one widely held view maintains that playing video games is intellectually lazy, such play actually may strengthen a range of cognitive skills such as spatial navigation, reasoning, memory and perception, according to several studies reviewed in the article. This is particularly true for shooter video games, which are often violent, the authors found. A 2013 meta-analysis found that playing shooter video games improved a player’s capacity to think about objects in three dimensions just as well as academic courses designed to enhance these same skills, according to the study.

    (Taken from https://www.apa.org/monitor/2014/02/video-game)

    Question 15 According to the study, shooter video games:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. At the start of paragraph 3, the authors state that improvement of cognitive abilities in video gaming is ‘particularly true’ for shooter video games. We can therefore conclude that option C is the correct answer.

    Timing tip: To save time in this question, look for the keyword in the text (in this case, shooter video games). All the answer options are related to shooter video games in this case, so this approach will save time.

    Post Comment

    Playing video games, including violent shooter games, may boost children’s learning, health and social skills, according to a review of research in American Psychologist.

    The study comes out as debate continues among psychologists and other health professionals regarding the effects of violent media on youth. An APA task force is conducting a comprehensive review of research on violence in video games and interactive media and will release its findings later this year.

    “Important research has already been conducted for decades on the negative effects of gaming, including addiction, depression and aggression, and we are certainly not suggesting that this should be ignored,” says Isabela Granic, PhD, of Radboud University Nijmegen in The Netherlands, lead author of the article. “However, to understand the impact of video games on children’s and adolescents’ development, a more balanced perspective is needed.”

    While one widely held view maintains that playing video games is intellectually lazy, such play actually may strengthen a range of cognitive skills such as spatial navigation, reasoning, memory and perception, according to several studies reviewed in the article. This is particularly true for shooter video games, which are often violent, the authors found. A 2013 meta-analysis found that playing shooter video games improved a player’s capacity to think about objects in three dimensions just as well as academic courses designed to enhance these same skills, according to the study.

    (Taken from https://www.apa.org/monitor/2014/02/video-game)

    Question 16 Which of the following statements about the passage is true?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D. The text states that playing shooter video games improves three-dimensional thinking to the same extent as academic courses. Therefore, option D is correct

    Post Comment

    In 2019, scientists witnessed a massive star 2.5 million times brighter than the sun disappear without a trace. Perhaps, a team of astrophysicists theorise, the massive star died and collapsed into a black hole without undergoing a supernova explosion first — a truly “unprecedented” act of stellar suicide. “If true, this would be the first direct detection of such a monster star ending its life in this manner”.

    The star in question, located about 75 million light-years away in the constellation Aquarius, was well studied between 2001 and 2011. The bloated orb was a superb example of a luminous blue variable (LBV) — a massive star approaching the end of its life and prone to unpredictable variations in brightness. Stars like this are rare, with only a handful confirmed in the universe so far.

    In 2019, astronomers hoped to use the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope to learn more about the distant LBV’s mysterious evolution, only to discover that the star had seemingly completely vanished from its host galaxy.

    Normally, when a star much larger than our sun reaches the end of its life, it erupts in an enormous supernova explosion. These explosions are easy to spot, as they stain the sky around them with ionized gas and powerful radiation for many light-years in every direction. Following the blast, the dense core of leftover stellar material may collapse into a black hole or a neutron star — two of space’s most massive and mysterious objects. The missing LBV left no such radiation. It simply disappeared.

    (Adapted from https://www.livescience.com/disappearing-star-black-hole-no-supernova.html)

    Question 17 Stellar suicide:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. The passage states that option B is “a[n]… act of stellar suicide”. Therefore, this is the correct answer.

    Post Comment

    In 2019, scientists witnessed a massive star 2.5 million times brighter than the sun disappear without a trace. Perhaps, a team of astrophysicists theorise, the massive star died and collapsed into a black hole without undergoing a supernova explosion first — a truly “unprecedented” act of stellar suicide. “If true, this would be the first direct detection of such a monster star ending its life in this manner”.

    The star in question, located about 75 million light-years away in the constellation Aquarius, was well studied between 2001 and 2011. The bloated orb was a superb example of a luminous blue variable (LBV) — a massive star approaching the end of its life and prone to unpredictable variations in brightness. Stars like this are rare, with only a handful confirmed in the universe so far.

    In 2019, astronomers hoped to use the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope to learn more about the distant LBV’s mysterious evolution, only to discover that the star had seemingly completely vanished from its host galaxy.

    Normally, when a star much larger than our sun reaches the end of its life, it erupts in an enormous supernova explosion. These explosions are easy to spot, as they stain the sky around them with ionized gas and powerful radiation for many light-years in every direction. Following the blast, the dense core of leftover stellar material may collapse into a black hole or a neutron star — two of space’s most massive and mysterious objects. The missing LBV left no such radiation. It simply disappeared.

    (Adapted from https://www.livescience.com/disappearing-star-black-hole-no-supernova.html)

    Question 18 The star mentioned in this passage:
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. According to the passage, this type of star was prone to large fluctuations in brightness. From this we can infer that option A is a true statement.

    Post Comment

    In 2019, scientists witnessed a massive star 2.5 million times brighter than the sun disappear without a trace. Perhaps, a team of astrophysicists theorise, the massive star died and collapsed into a black hole without undergoing a supernova explosion first — a truly “unprecedented” act of stellar suicide. “If true, this would be the first direct detection of such a monster star ending its life in this manner”.

    The star in question, located about 75 million light-years away in the constellation Aquarius, was well studied between 2001 and 2011. The bloated orb was a superb example of a luminous blue variable (LBV) — a massive star approaching the end of its life and prone to unpredictable variations in brightness. Stars like this are rare, with only a handful confirmed in the universe so far.

    In 2019, astronomers hoped to use the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope to learn more about the distant LBV’s mysterious evolution, only to discover that the star had seemingly completely vanished from its host galaxy.

    Normally, when a star much larger than our sun reaches the end of its life, it erupts in an enormous supernova explosion. These explosions are easy to spot, as they stain the sky around them with ionized gas and powerful radiation for many light-years in every direction. Following the blast, the dense core of leftover stellar material may collapse into a black hole or a neutron star — two of space’s most massive and mysterious objects. The missing LBV left no such radiation. It simply disappeared.

    (Adapted from https://www.livescience.com/disappearing-star-black-hole-no-supernova.html)

    Question 19 In terms of the death of the star:
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. The passage states that the star was ‘approaching the end of its life’. Therefore, we can deduce that the star was expected to die soon after it was discovered.

     

    Post Comment
    amy Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 12 Sep 2021 01:13:59

    Aren't we told to avoid reading the entire passage where possible? What differentiates the questions where we scan for key words vs wasting time reading the whole thing?

    In 2019, scientists witnessed a massive star 2.5 million times brighter than the sun disappear without a trace. Perhaps, a team of astrophysicists theorise, the massive star died and collapsed into a black hole without undergoing a supernova explosion first — a truly “unprecedented” act of stellar suicide. “If true, this would be the first direct detection of such a monster star ending its life in this manner”.

    The star in question, located about 75 million light-years away in the constellation Aquarius, was well studied between 2001 and 2011. The bloated orb was a superb example of a luminous blue variable (LBV) — a massive star approaching the end of its life and prone to unpredictable variations in brightness. Stars like this are rare, with only a handful confirmed in the universe so far.

    In 2019, astronomers hoped to use the European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope to learn more about the distant LBV’s mysterious evolution, only to discover that the star had seemingly completely vanished from its host galaxy.

    Normally, when a star much larger than our sun reaches the end of its life, it erupts in an enormous supernova explosion. These explosions are easy to spot, as they stain the sky around them with ionized gas and powerful radiation for many light-years in every direction. Following the blast, the dense core of leftover stellar material may collapse into a black hole or a neutron star — two of space’s most massive and mysterious objects. The missing LBV left no such radiation. It simply disappeared.

    (Adapted from https://www.livescience.com/disappearing-star-black-hole-no-supernova.html)

    Question 20 When a large star dies:
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    3

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. The passage states that powerful radiation can be emitted in every direction, so option B is correct. Option A is incorrect as the passage says this ‘normally’ occurs, but not always.

    Top tip: Be wary of any statements that have words such as ‘always’ or never’ in them, known as Extreme Language. These words are often included to trip candidates up – make sure that there is sufficient evidence before selecting these options.

    Post Comment

    The price of a share of stock, like that of any other financial asset, equals the present value of the sum of the expected dividends or other cash payments to the shareholders, where future payments are discounted by the interest rate and risks involved. Most of the cash payments to shareholders arise from dividends, which are paid out of earnings and other distributions resulting from the sale or liquidation of assets.

    The cash payments available to a shareholder are uncertain and subject to the earnings of the firm. This uncertainty contrasts sharply with cash payments to bondholders, the value of which is fixed by contractual obligation and is paid in a timely manner unless the firm encounters severe financial stress, such as bankruptcy. As a result, the price of stocks normally fluctuates more than the price of bonds.

    Over time, most firms pay rising dividends. Dividends increase for two reasons. First, because firms rarely pay out all their earnings as dividends, the difference, called retained earnings, is available to the firm to invest or buy back its shares.

    This, in turn, often produces greater future earnings and, hence, higher prospective dividends. Second, a firm’s earnings will rise as the price of its output rises with inflation, as demand for its products grows, and as the firm operates more efficiently. Firms with steadily rising dividends are sought after by investors, who often pay premium prices to own such firms.

    Cash payments to shareholders also result from the sale of some of the firm’s assets, liquidation, or a buyout. A firm may sell some of its operations, using the revenues from the sale to provide a lump-sum distribution to shareholders. When a firm sells all its operations and assets, this total liquidation results in a cash distribution after obligations to creditors are satisfied. Finally, if another firm or individual purchases the firm, existing shareholders are often eligible to receive cash distributions.

    (Taken from: https://www.econlib.org/library/Enc/StockMarket.html)

    Question 21 According to the passage, the author most likely agrees that:
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    6

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. From the text, we know that the price of stocks usually fluctuates more than the price of bonds. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

    Post Comment
    J Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 12 Aug 2021 12:54:21

    If the prices of shares fluctuate more, how can it be more likely that the price of a bond will change more?

    lotta Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:28:03

    Statement b seems to contradict the passage

    The price of a share of stock, like that of any other financial asset, equals the present value of the sum of the expected dividends or other cash payments to the shareholders, where future payments are discounted by the interest rate and risks involved. Most of the cash payments to shareholders arise from dividends, which are paid out of earnings and other distributions resulting from the sale or liquidation of assets.

    The cash payments available to a shareholder are uncertain and subject to the earnings of the firm. This uncertainty contrasts sharply with cash payments to bondholders, the value of which is fixed by contractual obligation and is paid in a timely manner unless the firm encounters severe financial stress, such as bankruptcy. As a result, the price of stocks normally fluctuates more than the price of bonds.

    Over time, most firms pay rising dividends. Dividends increase for two reasons. First, because firms rarely pay out all their earnings as dividends, the difference, called retained earnings, is available to the firm to invest or buy back its shares.

    This, in turn, often produces greater future earnings and, hence, higher prospective dividends. Second, a firm’s earnings will rise as the price of its output rises with inflation, as demand for its products grows, and as the firm operates more efficiently. Firms with steadily rising dividends are sought after by investors, who often pay premium prices to own such firms.

    Cash payments to shareholders also result from the sale of some of the firm’s assets, liquidation, or a buyout. A firm may sell some of its operations, using the revenues from the sale to provide a lump-sum distribution to shareholders. When a firm sells all its operations and assets, this total liquidation results in a cash distribution after obligations to creditors are satisfied. Finally, if another firm or individual purchases the firm, existing shareholders are often eligible to receive cash distributions.

    (Taken from: https://www.econlib.org/library/Enc/StockMarket.html)

    Question 22 Which one of these statements represents the two main reasons why dividends increase?
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. From paragraph 3, we can say that there are two main reasons why dividends increase in value; retained earnings will often produce higher earnings in the future, and as the firm becomes more successful, investors are more likely to pay higher premiums for dividends.

    Post Comment

    The price of a share of stock, like that of any other financial asset, equals the present value of the sum of the expected dividends or other cash payments to the shareholders, where future payments are discounted by the interest rate and risks involved. Most of the cash payments to shareholders arise from dividends, which are paid out of earnings and other distributions resulting from the sale or liquidation of assets.

    The cash payments available to a shareholder are uncertain and subject to the earnings of the firm. This uncertainty contrasts sharply with cash payments to bondholders, the value of which is fixed by contractual obligation and is paid in a timely manner unless the firm encounters severe financial stress, such as bankruptcy. As a result, the price of stocks normally fluctuates more than the price of bonds.

    Over time, most firms pay rising dividends. Dividends increase for two reasons. First, because firms rarely pay out all their earnings as dividends, the difference, called retained earnings, is available to the firm to invest or buy back its shares.

    This, in turn, often produces greater future earnings and, hence, higher prospective dividends. Second, a firm’s earnings will rise as the price of its output rises with inflation, as demand for its products grows, and as the firm operates more efficiently. Firms with steadily rising dividends are sought after by investors, who often pay premium prices to own such firms.

    Cash payments to shareholders also result from the sale of some of the firm’s assets, liquidation, or a buyout. A firm may sell some of its operations, using the revenues from the sale to provide a lump-sum distribution to shareholders. When a firm sells all its operations and assets, this total liquidation results in a cash distribution after obligations to creditors are satisfied. Finally, if another firm or individual purchases the firm, existing shareholders are often eligible to receive cash distributions.

    (Taken from: https://www.econlib.org/library/Enc/StockMarket.html)

    Question 23 Firm shareholders:
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. The passage states that the dividends received by shareholders will depend on that firm’s earnings. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

    Common trap: Option C is a prime example of why wording matters in the VR section of UCAT. Beware of words such as ‘always’ as this indicates that you need evidence that this occurs in every situation. In the passage, it only states that shareholders are ‘often’ eligible so Option C cannot be the correct answer.

    Post Comment

    The price of a share of stock, like that of any other financial asset, equals the present value of the sum of the expected dividends or other cash payments to the shareholders, where future payments are discounted by the interest rate and risks involved. Most of the cash payments to shareholders arise from dividends, which are paid out of earnings and other distributions resulting from the sale or liquidation of assets.

    The cash payments available to a shareholder are uncertain and subject to the earnings of the firm. This uncertainty contrasts sharply with cash payments to bondholders, the value of which is fixed by contractual obligation and is paid in a timely manner unless the firm encounters severe financial stress, such as bankruptcy. As a result, the price of stocks normally fluctuates more than the price of bonds.

    Over time, most firms pay rising dividends. Dividends increase for two reasons. First, because firms rarely pay out all their earnings as dividends, the difference, called retained earnings, is available to the firm to invest or buy back its shares.

    This, in turn, often produces greater future earnings and, hence, higher prospective dividends. Second, a firm’s earnings will rise as the price of its output rises with inflation, as demand for its products grows, and as the firm operates more efficiently. Firms with steadily rising dividends are sought after by investors, who often pay premium prices to own such firms.

    Cash payments to shareholders also result from the sale of some of the firm’s assets, liquidation, or a buyout. A firm may sell some of its operations, using the revenues from the sale to provide a lump-sum distribution to shareholders. When a firm sells all its operations and assets, this total liquidation results in a cash distribution after obligations to creditors are satisfied. Finally, if another firm or individual purchases the firm, existing shareholders are often eligible to receive cash distributions.

    (Taken from: https://www.econlib.org/library/Enc/StockMarket.html)

    Question 24 According to the passage, what is the most important difference between shareholders and bondholders?
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D. The most important difference in the passage is that firms are ‘contractually obliged’ to pay bondholders regular sums of money, unlike shareholders where the sum of money fluctuates a lot.

    Top tip: read the question carefully because although some of the statements in the answer options may be true, they are not the ‘most important’ differences between the two.

    Post Comment

    The British love affair with consumer magazines has become increasingly tepid since the arrival of online competitors such as YouTube and Facebook, compounded by the new leisure-time lures of Netflix and Amazon.

    The magazine business is in trouble, and its problems are summed up by the current top 10 chart of consumer titles that readers buy or subscribe to online. In the first half of 2019, the total circulation of that top 10 was 4.7m – half the 9.4m recorded in the first six months of 2001.Total annual UK consumer magazine sales have fared even worse, plummeting by 60% from just over 1.2bn in 2005 to 481m in 2019, according to the research firm Enders Analysis.

    Other titles that have struggled in the last decade include OK!, once the king of celebrity gossip magazines, which has seen sales fall by almost 80% to 122,000 copies. Over the same period Cosmopolitan’s popularity dropped 60%, and the circulation of Heat magazine slumped by three-quarters.

    And experts believe it is only going to get worse. “There is a crisis in the industry,” says Douglas McCabe, the chief executive of Enders Analysis. “Given how much circulation has fallen there really haven’t been as many outright closures as you’d think. Some publishers are just hanging on. We would expect to see more closures in the next five years than the previous five.”

    (Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/media/2019/sep/14/between-the-covers-how-the-british-fell-out-of-love-with-magazines

    Question 25 Previous consumers of British magazines:
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. YouTube and Facebook are listed as online ‘competitors’ in the passage. We can therefore infer that some previous consumers will use these media.

    Post Comment

    The British love affair with consumer magazines has become increasingly tepid since the arrival of online competitors such as YouTube and Facebook, compounded by the new leisure-time lures of Netflix and Amazon.

    The magazine business is in trouble, and its problems are summed up by the current top 10 chart of consumer titles that readers buy or subscribe to online. In the first half of 2019, the total circulation of that top 10 was 4.7m – half the 9.4m recorded in the first six months of 2001.Total annual UK consumer magazine sales have fared even worse, plummeting by 60% from just over 1.2bn in 2005 to 481m in 2019, according to the research firm Enders Analysis.

    Other titles that have struggled in the last decade include OK!, once the king of celebrity gossip magazines, which has seen sales fall by almost 80% to 122,000 copies. Over the same period Cosmopolitan’s popularity dropped 60%, and the circulation of Heat magazine slumped by three-quarters.

    And experts believe it is only going to get worse. “There is a crisis in the industry,” says Douglas McCabe, the chief executive of Enders Analysis. “Given how much circulation has fallen there really haven’t been as many outright closures as you’d think. Some publishers are just hanging on. We would expect to see more closures in the next five years than the previous five.”

    (Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/media/2019/sep/14/between-the-covers-how-the-british-fell-out-of-love-with-magazines

    Question 26 From January to June 2019,
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    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. Annual magazine sales have fallen more than sales of top 10 magazines; from the text we know that the annual magazine sales have fallen by 60% and the sales of top 10 magazines have fallen by half.

    Timing tip: Try to eliminate potential options where possible to save time in this section. If you have eliminated two options after 30 seconds, it is worth spending some extra time to work out the correct answer. However, if you are on the last question of a passage, consider flagging the question and moving on as rereading the passage will not benefit any future questions.

    Post Comment
    Chris Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 20 Aug 2021 13:55:15

    Erm, Is this a mistake? C is correct surely? This needs reviewing.

    lotta Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:05:05

    Incorrect! Sales of top 10 magazines have fallen by three quarters (75%)

    The British love affair with consumer magazines has become increasingly tepid since the arrival of online competitors such as YouTube and Facebook, compounded by the new leisure-time lures of Netflix and Amazon.

    The magazine business is in trouble, and its problems are summed up by the current top 10 chart of consumer titles that readers buy or subscribe to online. In the first half of 2019, the total circulation of that top 10 was 4.7m – half the 9.4m recorded in the first six months of 2001.Total annual UK consumer magazine sales have fared even worse, plummeting by 60% from just over 1.2bn in 2005 to 481m in 2019, according to the research firm Enders Analysis.

    Other titles that have struggled in the last decade include OK!, once the king of celebrity gossip magazines, which has seen sales fall by almost 80% to 122,000 copies. Over the same period Cosmopolitan’s popularity dropped 60%, and the circulation of Heat magazine slumped by three-quarters.

    And experts believe it is only going to get worse. “There is a crisis in the industry,” says Douglas McCabe, the chief executive of Enders Analysis. “Given how much circulation has fallen there really haven’t been as many outright closures as you’d think. Some publishers are just hanging on. We would expect to see more closures in the next five years than the previous five.”

    (Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/media/2019/sep/14/between-the-covers-how-the-british-fell-out-of-love-with-magazines

    Question 27 Which of the following statements about popular magazines is the author of the article most likely to agree with?
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D. The passage states that ‘more closures’ are expected in the next five years, so we can deduce that option D is the correct answer. Option A is not necessarily true and there is not very strong evidence for this in the text. Option B is incorrect and is actually the other way around judging by the statistics provided (60% vs 75%). Option C most likely refers to OK! Magazine, but fails to recognise that celebrity gossip could come from elsewhere, such as ‘competitors’ YouTube or Facebook.

    Post Comment

    The British love affair with consumer magazines has become increasingly tepid since the arrival of online competitors such as YouTube and Facebook, compounded by the new leisure-time lures of Netflix and Amazon.

    The magazine business is in trouble, and its problems are summed up by the current top 10 chart of consumer titles that readers buy or subscribe to online. In the first half of 2019, the total circulation of that top 10 was 4.7m – half the 9.4m recorded in the first six months of 2001.Total annual UK consumer magazine sales have fared even worse, plummeting by 60% from just over 1.2bn in 2005 to 481m in 2019, according to the research firm Enders Analysis.

    Other titles that have struggled in the last decade include OK!, once the king of celebrity gossip magazines, which has seen sales fall by almost 80% to 122,000 copies. Over the same period Cosmopolitan’s popularity dropped 60%, and the circulation of Heat magazine slumped by three-quarters.

    And experts believe it is only going to get worse. “There is a crisis in the industry,” says Douglas McCabe, the chief executive of Enders Analysis. “Given how much circulation has fallen there really haven’t been as many outright closures as you’d think. Some publishers are just hanging on. We would expect to see more closures in the next five years than the previous five.”

    (Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/media/2019/sep/14/between-the-covers-how-the-british-fell-out-of-love-with-magazines

    Question 28 Magazine publishers are most likely to collapse because:
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. Option C is correct because online resources such as YouTube and Facebook have been listed as competitors, implying that the target audience will spend time on these platforms instead of reading magazines. Option D is incorrect because the closures are due to the collapse of publishers.

     

    Post Comment

    People keep making new brain cells throughout their lives, according to a new study carried out on human brains. The idea has been fiercely debated, and it used to be thought we were born with all the brain cells we will ever have. The researchers at the University of Madrid also showed that the number of new brain cells tailed off with age, falling dramatically in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease – giving new ideas for treating the dementia.

    Studies on other mammals have found new brains cells forming later in life, but the extent of “neurogenesis” in the human brain is still a source of debate.

    The study looked at the brains of 58 deceased people who were aged between 43 and 97. The focus was on the hippocampus – a part of the brain involved in memory and emotion.

    The researchers were able to spot immature or “new” neurons in the brains that they examined. In healthy brains there was a “slight decrease” in the amount of this neurogenesis with age. The number of new neurons forming fell from 30,000 per millimetre to 20,000 per millimetre in people at the beginning of Alzheimer’s.

    (Adapted from https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/health-47692495)

     

    Question 29 The hippocampus is an area of the brain involved in Alzheimer’s disease.
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. While this may be true, there is no evidence of this in the text. The hippocampus was the area of the brain used in the study, however, the results we are shown only state that the number of neurons falls in Alzheimer’s and does not explicitly mention that the hippocampus is involved in Alzheimer’s disease. We are only told that the hippocampus is involved in memory and emotion, but not explicitly in Alzheimer’s disease.

    Top tip: Again, the best approach to true/false questions is to look for the keyword and then look for any supporting evidence. The keywords in this question are hippocampus and Alzheimer’s.

     

    Post Comment

    People keep making new brain cells throughout their lives, according to a new study carried out on human brains. The idea has been fiercely debated, and it used to be thought we were born with all the brain cells we will ever have. The researchers at the University of Madrid also showed that the number of new brain cells tailed off with age, falling dramatically in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease – giving new ideas for treating the dementia.

    Studies on other mammals have found new brains cells forming later in life, but the extent of “neurogenesis” in the human brain is still a source of debate.

    The study looked at the brains of 58 deceased people who were aged between 43 and 97. The focus was on the hippocampus – a part of the brain involved in memory and emotion.

    The researchers were able to spot immature or “new” neurons in the brains that they examined. In healthy brains there was a “slight decrease” in the amount of this neurogenesis with age. The number of new neurons forming fell from 30,000 per millimetre to 20,000 per millimetre in people at the beginning of Alzheimer’s.

    (Adapted from https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/health-47692495)

     

    Question 30 A decrease in neurogenesis with age indicates ill health.
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. This is not true as the passage states that there was a ‘slight decrease’ in neurogenesis with age in healthy brains.

    Post Comment

    People keep making new brain cells throughout their lives, according to a new study carried out on human brains. The idea has been fiercely debated, and it used to be thought we were born with all the brain cells we will ever have. The researchers at the University of Madrid also showed that the number of new brain cells tailed off with age, falling dramatically in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease – giving new ideas for treating the dementia.

    Studies on other mammals have found new brains cells forming later in life, but the extent of “neurogenesis” in the human brain is still a source of debate.

    The study looked at the brains of 58 deceased people who were aged between 43 and 97. The focus was on the hippocampus – a part of the brain involved in memory and emotion.

    The researchers were able to spot immature or “new” neurons in the brains that they examined. In healthy brains there was a “slight decrease” in the amount of this neurogenesis with age. The number of new neurons forming fell from 30,000 per millimetre to 20,000 per millimetre in people at the beginning of Alzheimer’s.

    (Adapted from https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/health-47692495)

     

    Question 31 Between the ages of 43 and 97, there is a decrease in memory and emotion.
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. The study participants were aged between 43 and 97. There is no evidence in the passage that this statement is true. Although it is likely to be false, there is also no opposing evidence in the passage that this statement is false either, so the correct answer is option C.

     

     

    Post Comment

    People keep making new brain cells throughout their lives, according to a new study carried out on human brains. The idea has been fiercely debated, and it used to be thought we were born with all the brain cells we will ever have. The researchers at the University of Madrid also showed that the number of new brain cells tailed off with age, falling dramatically in the early stages of Alzheimer’s disease – giving new ideas for treating the dementia.

    Studies on other mammals have found new brains cells forming later in life, but the extent of “neurogenesis” in the human brain is still a source of debate.

    The study looked at the brains of 58 deceased people who were aged between 43 and 97. The focus was on the hippocampus – a part of the brain involved in memory and emotion.

    The researchers were able to spot immature or “new” neurons in the brains that they examined. In healthy brains there was a “slight decrease” in the amount of this neurogenesis with age. The number of new neurons forming fell from 30,000 per millimetre to 20,000 per millimetre in people at the beginning of Alzheimer’s.

    (Adapted from https://www.bbc.co.uk/news/health-47692495)

     

    Question 32 Neurogenesis refers to the process of ‘new’ neurons forming.
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. In the final paragraph, we can see that the presence of ‘new neurons’ is described as ‘neurogenesis’. We can therefore infer that this statement is correct.

     

    Post Comment

    The birth and development of civilisation on the Polynesian islands continues to be a source of fascination for historians, and new evidence shows that Native American visitors may well have been established in the area hundreds of years before European settlers.

    After a detailed DNA analysis of the genomes of more than 800 Polynesians and Native Americans, both modern and prehistoric, researchers have found evidence of contact between the two groups as far back as 1200 CE.

    The team found signs of genetic admixture that they traced to a single contact event around that time, and it could mean a rethink as to how populations grew and evolved on the islands before European traders and missionaries arrived at the start of the 18th century.

    “Our analyses suggest strongly that a single contact event occurred in eastern Polynesia, before the settlement of Rapa Nui, between Polynesian individuals and a Native American group most closely related to the indigenous inhabitants of present-day Colombia,” the researchers explain in their paper.

    Interestingly, this is the first genetic study to indicate that the initial point of contact for American travellers was not Easter Island – the closest island to South America – but rather one of the eastern Polynesian archipelagos, such as the South Marquesas.

    The same idea was previously put forward by Norwegian explorer and anthropologist Thor Heyerdahl, who famously made the 8,000-kilometre (5,000-mile) journey from Peru to the Tuamotu Islands, in a traditional wooden Inca raft called the Kon-Tiki, to show it could feasibly be done.

    (Taken from https://www.sciencealert.com/new-evidence-shows-prehistoric-contact-between-native-americans-and-polynesians )

    Question 33 In terms of ethnicity, Native Americans and Europeans are both found on the Polynesian islands.
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. This is true because we are told that both groups of people settled on the Polynesian islands. 

    Post Comment

    The birth and development of civilisation on the Polynesian islands continues to be a source of fascination for historians, and new evidence shows that Native American visitors may well have been established in the area hundreds of years before European settlers.

    After a detailed DNA analysis of the genomes of more than 800 Polynesians and Native Americans, both modern and prehistoric, researchers have found evidence of contact between the two groups as far back as 1200 CE.

    The team found signs of genetic admixture that they traced to a single contact event around that time, and it could mean a rethink as to how populations grew and evolved on the islands before European traders and missionaries arrived at the start of the 18th century.

    “Our analyses suggest strongly that a single contact event occurred in eastern Polynesia, before the settlement of Rapa Nui, between Polynesian individuals and a Native American group most closely related to the indigenous inhabitants of present-day Colombia,” the researchers explain in their paper.

    Interestingly, this is the first genetic study to indicate that the initial point of contact for American travellers was not Easter Island – the closest island to South America – but rather one of the eastern Polynesian archipelagos, such as the South Marquesas.

    The same idea was previously put forward by Norwegian explorer and anthropologist Thor Heyerdahl, who famously made the 8,000-kilometre (5,000-mile) journey from Peru to the Tuamotu Islands, in a traditional wooden Inca raft called the Kon-Tiki, to show it could feasibly be done.

    (Taken from https://www.sciencealert.com/new-evidence-shows-prehistoric-contact-between-native-americans-and-polynesians )

    Question 34 Polynesians and Native Americans first made contact in exactly 1200 CE.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. Although evidence of the contact was first mentioned in 1200 C.E., we cannot tell if the statement is true as the contact is said to be ‘around that time’.

    Top tip: This is another example of a question which uses Extreme Language. Often, questions which use definitive words such as ‘always’, ‘never’ and ‘exactly’ are designed to catch candidates out.

    Post Comment

    The birth and development of civilisation on the Polynesian islands continues to be a source of fascination for historians, and new evidence shows that Native American visitors may well have been established in the area hundreds of years before European settlers.

    After a detailed DNA analysis of the genomes of more than 800 Polynesians and Native Americans, both modern and prehistoric, researchers have found evidence of contact between the two groups as far back as 1200 CE.

    The team found signs of genetic admixture that they traced to a single contact event around that time, and it could mean a rethink as to how populations grew and evolved on the islands before European traders and missionaries arrived at the start of the 18th century.

    “Our analyses suggest strongly that a single contact event occurred in eastern Polynesia, before the settlement of Rapa Nui, between Polynesian individuals and a Native American group most closely related to the indigenous inhabitants of present-day Colombia,” the researchers explain in their paper.

    Interestingly, this is the first genetic study to indicate that the initial point of contact for American travellers was not Easter Island – the closest island to South America – but rather one of the eastern Polynesian archipelagos, such as the South Marquesas.

    The same idea was previously put forward by Norwegian explorer and anthropologist Thor Heyerdahl, who famously made the 8,000-kilometre (5,000-mile) journey from Peru to the Tuamotu Islands, in a traditional wooden Inca raft called the Kon-Tiki, to show it could feasibly be done.

    (Taken from https://www.sciencealert.com/new-evidence-shows-prehistoric-contact-between-native-americans-and-polynesians )

    Question 35 All previous genetic studies suggest that the first point of contact for American travellers was at Easter Island.
  • 1
    4

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. This is true because in the text, we are told that this is the first genetic study to say that the initial point of contact was not at Easter Island. We can therefore deduce that all other studies say that the American travellers first arrived at Easter Island.

    Post Comment
    huh Medicmind Tutor

    Mon, 20 Sep 2021 10:09:41

    ????????

    hmm Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 23 Sep 2021 21:13:59

    this is wrong

    heh Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 26 Sep 2021 13:26:45

    wrong

    The birth and development of civilisation on the Polynesian islands continues to be a source of fascination for historians, and new evidence shows that Native American visitors may well have been established in the area hundreds of years before European settlers.

    After a detailed DNA analysis of the genomes of more than 800 Polynesians and Native Americans, both modern and prehistoric, researchers have found evidence of contact between the two groups as far back as 1200 CE.

    The team found signs of genetic admixture that they traced to a single contact event around that time, and it could mean a rethink as to how populations grew and evolved on the islands before European traders and missionaries arrived at the start of the 18th century.

    “Our analyses suggest strongly that a single contact event occurred in eastern Polynesia, before the settlement of Rapa Nui, between Polynesian individuals and a Native American group most closely related to the indigenous inhabitants of present-day Colombia,” the researchers explain in their paper.

    Interestingly, this is the first genetic study to indicate that the initial point of contact for American travellers was not Easter Island – the closest island to South America – but rather one of the eastern Polynesian archipelagos, such as the South Marquesas.

    The same idea was previously put forward by Norwegian explorer and anthropologist Thor Heyerdahl, who famously made the 8,000-kilometre (5,000-mile) journey from Peru to the Tuamotu Islands, in a traditional wooden Inca raft called the Kon-Tiki, to show it could feasibly be done.

    (Taken from https://www.sciencealert.com/new-evidence-shows-prehistoric-contact-between-native-americans-and-polynesians )

    Question 36 The first Polynesian islanders to settle in the area travelled by traditional rafts called Kon-Tiki.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. We do not know if this is true because it is not stated explicitly in the text. While it is true that Thor Heyerdahl replicated the journey in one of these rafts, we are not told in the text that this was true for the first Native American travellers.

    Post Comment

    Magma is extremely hot liquid and semi-liquid rock located under Earth’s surface. Earth has a layered structure that consists of the inner core, outer core, mantle, and crust. Much of the planet’s mantle consists of magma. This magma can push through holes or cracks in the crust, causing a volcanic eruption. When magma flows or erupts onto Earth’s surface, it is called lava.

    Like solid rock, magma is a mixture of minerals. It also contains small amounts of dissolved gases such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulphur. The high temperatures and pressure under Earth’s crust keep magma in its fluid state.

    There are three basic types of magma: basaltic, andesitic, and rhyolitic, each of which has a different mineral composition. All types of magma have a significant percentage of silicon dioxide. Basaltic magma is high in iron, magnesium, and calcium but low in potassium and sodium. It ranges in temperature from about 1000oC to 1200oC. Andesitic magma has moderate amounts of these minerals, with a temperature range from about 800oC to 1000oC. Rhyolitic magma is high in potassium and sodium but low in iron, magnesium, and calcium. It occurs in the temperature range of about 650oC to 800oC. Both the temperature and mineral content of magma affect how easily it flows.

    The viscosity (thickness) of the magma that erupts from a volcano affects the shape of the volcano. Volcanoes with steep slopes tend to form from very viscous magma, while flatter volcanoes form from magma that flows easily.

    (Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/magma/)

     

    Question 37 Which of the following statements is true?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. We are told that magma is called lava when it erupts onto the surface of the Earth, and that a volcanic eruption involves the eruption of magma through holes or cracks. Therefore, we can deduce that a volcanic eruption must include the presence of lava.

    Post Comment

    Magma is extremely hot liquid and semi-liquid rock located under Earth’s surface. Earth has a layered structure that consists of the inner core, outer core, mantle, and crust. Much of the planet’s mantle consists of magma. This magma can push through holes or cracks in the crust, causing a volcanic eruption. When magma flows or erupts onto Earth’s surface, it is called lava.

    Like solid rock, magma is a mixture of minerals. It also contains small amounts of dissolved gases such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulphur. The high temperatures and pressure under Earth’s crust keep magma in its fluid state.

    There are three basic types of magma: basaltic, andesitic, and rhyolitic, each of which has a different mineral composition. All types of magma have a significant percentage of silicon dioxide. Basaltic magma is high in iron, magnesium, and calcium but low in potassium and sodium. It ranges in temperature from about 1000oC to 1200oC. Andesitic magma has moderate amounts of these minerals, with a temperature range from about 800oC to 1000oC. Rhyolitic magma is high in potassium and sodium but low in iron, magnesium, and calcium. It occurs in the temperature range of about 650oC to 800oC. Both the temperature and mineral content of magma affect how easily it flows.

    The viscosity (thickness) of the magma that erupts from a volcano affects the shape of the volcano. Volcanoes with steep slopes tend to form from very viscous magma, while flatter volcanoes form from magma that flows easily.

    (Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/magma/)

     

    Question 38 The composition of magma:
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.We are told that ‘all types of magma’ contain silicon dioxide, and we can therefore state that option A is true.

    Post Comment

    Magma is extremely hot liquid and semi-liquid rock located under Earth’s surface. Earth has a layered structure that consists of the inner core, outer core, mantle, and crust. Much of the planet’s mantle consists of magma. This magma can push through holes or cracks in the crust, causing a volcanic eruption. When magma flows or erupts onto Earth’s surface, it is called lava.

    Like solid rock, magma is a mixture of minerals. It also contains small amounts of dissolved gases such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulphur. The high temperatures and pressure under Earth’s crust keep magma in its fluid state.

    There are three basic types of magma: basaltic, andesitic, and rhyolitic, each of which has a different mineral composition. All types of magma have a significant percentage of silicon dioxide. Basaltic magma is high in iron, magnesium, and calcium but low in potassium and sodium. It ranges in temperature from about 1000oC to 1200oC. Andesitic magma has moderate amounts of these minerals, with a temperature range from about 800oC to 1000oC. Rhyolitic magma is high in potassium and sodium but low in iron, magnesium, and calcium. It occurs in the temperature range of about 650oC to 800oC. Both the temperature and mineral content of magma affect how easily it flows.

    The viscosity (thickness) of the magma that erupts from a volcano affects the shape of the volcano. Volcanoes with steep slopes tend to form from very viscous magma, while flatter volcanoes form from magma that flows easily.

    (Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/magma/)

     

    Question 39 The temperature of magma:
  • 1
    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. We are told that the viscosity of magma affects the slope of the volcano formed. We are also told that the temperature affects the viscosity of magma. Therefore, we can infer that the temperature of the magma will affect the shape of the volcano.

    Post Comment

    Magma is extremely hot liquid and semi-liquid rock located under Earth’s surface. Earth has a layered structure that consists of the inner core, outer core, mantle, and crust. Much of the planet’s mantle consists of magma. This magma can push through holes or cracks in the crust, causing a volcanic eruption. When magma flows or erupts onto Earth’s surface, it is called lava.

    Like solid rock, magma is a mixture of minerals. It also contains small amounts of dissolved gases such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulphur. The high temperatures and pressure under Earth’s crust keep magma in its fluid state.

    There are three basic types of magma: basaltic, andesitic, and rhyolitic, each of which has a different mineral composition. All types of magma have a significant percentage of silicon dioxide. Basaltic magma is high in iron, magnesium, and calcium but low in potassium and sodium. It ranges in temperature from about 1000oC to 1200oC. Andesitic magma has moderate amounts of these minerals, with a temperature range from about 800oC to 1000oC. Rhyolitic magma is high in potassium and sodium but low in iron, magnesium, and calcium. It occurs in the temperature range of about 650oC to 800oC. Both the temperature and mineral content of magma affect how easily it flows.

    The viscosity (thickness) of the magma that erupts from a volcano affects the shape of the volcano. Volcanoes with steep slopes tend to form from very viscous magma, while flatter volcanoes form from magma that flows easily.

    (Adapted from https://www.nationalgeographic.org/encyclopedia/magma/)

     

    Question 40 Which of the following statements is true?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.We can infer that option C is correct because the Rhyolitic magma contains the most sodium and potassium and is the coolest, Andesitic contains moderate amounts and is a moderate temperature, and Basaltic magma contains the least and is hottest. Option A is not necessarily correct because we are not told that this always happens. Option D is incorrect because the magma will contain the same minerals in different proportions.

    Post Comment

    Your mind can be a powerful healing tool when given the chance. The idea that your brain can convince your body a fake treatment is the real thing — the so-called placebo effect — and thus stimulate healing has been around for millennia. Now science has found that under the right circumstances, a placebo can be just as effective as traditional treatments.

    “The placebo effect is more than positive thinking — believing a treatment or procedure will work. It’s about creating a stronger connection between the brain and body and how they work together,” says Professor Ted Kaptchuk of Harvard-affiliated Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center, whose research focuses on the placebo effect.

    Placebos won’t lower your cholesterol or shrink a tumor. Instead, placebos work on symptoms modulated by the brain, like the perception of pain. “Placebos may make you feel better, but they will not cure you,” says Kaptchuk. “In addition to pain management, they have been shown to be most effective for conditions like stress-related insomnia, and cancer treatment side effects like fatigue and nausea.”

    (Taken from the Harvard Medical School website – https://www.health.harvard.edu/mental-health/the-power-of-the-placebo-effect)

    Question 41 Which of the following could be classified as a placebo effect?
  • 1
    2

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. Option B is in fitting with the information provided in the second and third paragraph, with the resolution of insomnia through training the brain to work with the body. Option C is incorrect according to the passage as the placebo effect is ‘more than positive thinking’. 

    Common trap: Do not use your own knowledge in the VR section; only rely on the information provided in front of you. Some people would consider option C to be an example of the placebo effect, however, this does not agree with the passage and is therefore incorrect.

    Post Comment

    Your mind can be a powerful healing tool when given the chance. The idea that your brain can convince your body a fake treatment is the real thing — the so-called placebo effect — and thus stimulate healing has been around for millennia. Now science has found that under the right circumstances, a placebo can be just as effective as traditional treatments.

    “The placebo effect is more than positive thinking — believing a treatment or procedure will work. It’s about creating a stronger connection between the brain and body and how they work together,” says Professor Ted Kaptchuk of Harvard-affiliated Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center, whose research focuses on the placebo effect.

    Placebos won’t lower your cholesterol or shrink a tumor. Instead, placebos work on symptoms modulated by the brain, like the perception of pain. “Placebos may make you feel better, but they will not cure you,” says Kaptchuk. “In addition to pain management, they have been shown to be most effective for conditions like stress-related insomnia, and cancer treatment side effects like fatigue and nausea.”

    (Taken from the Harvard Medical School website – https://www.health.harvard.edu/mental-health/the-power-of-the-placebo-effect)

    Question 42 What is the main conclusion that can be drawn from the passage?
  • 0
    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. Some aspects of all the options are correct, however, option C provides the best summary of the information provided in the passage.

    Post Comment

    Your mind can be a powerful healing tool when given the chance. The idea that your brain can convince your body a fake treatment is the real thing — the so-called placebo effect — and thus stimulate healing has been around for millennia. Now science has found that under the right circumstances, a placebo can be just as effective as traditional treatments.

    “The placebo effect is more than positive thinking — believing a treatment or procedure will work. It’s about creating a stronger connection between the brain and body and how they work together,” says Professor Ted Kaptchuk of Harvard-affiliated Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center, whose research focuses on the placebo effect.

    Placebos won’t lower your cholesterol or shrink a tumor. Instead, placebos work on symptoms modulated by the brain, like the perception of pain. “Placebos may make you feel better, but they will not cure you,” says Kaptchuk. “In addition to pain management, they have been shown to be most effective for conditions like stress-related insomnia, and cancer treatment side effects like fatigue and nausea.”

    (Taken from the Harvard Medical School website – https://www.health.harvard.edu/mental-health/the-power-of-the-placebo-effect)

    Question 43 According to the passage, which three conditions are placebos most useful for?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. In paragraph 3, the passage states that “In addition to pain management, [placebos] have been shown to be most effective for conditions like stress-related insomnia, and cancer treatment side effects like fatigue and nausea’. Therefore, option C is the correct answer as it correctly identifies all three.

    Post Comment

    Your mind can be a powerful healing tool when given the chance. The idea that your brain can convince your body a fake treatment is the real thing — the so-called placebo effect — and thus stimulate healing has been around for millennia. Now science has found that under the right circumstances, a placebo can be just as effective as traditional treatments.

    “The placebo effect is more than positive thinking — believing a treatment or procedure will work. It’s about creating a stronger connection between the brain and body and how they work together,” says Professor Ted Kaptchuk of Harvard-affiliated Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center, whose research focuses on the placebo effect.

    Placebos won’t lower your cholesterol or shrink a tumor. Instead, placebos work on symptoms modulated by the brain, like the perception of pain. “Placebos may make you feel better, but they will not cure you,” says Kaptchuk. “In addition to pain management, they have been shown to be most effective for conditions like stress-related insomnia, and cancer treatment side effects like fatigue and nausea.”

    (Taken from the Harvard Medical School website – https://www.health.harvard.edu/mental-health/the-power-of-the-placebo-effect)

    Question 44 Which of the following assertions about the placebo effect is best supported by this passage?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. This is the option which best fits the information provided in the passage. Option C is not the correct answer because of the word ‘curative’ – the text states that placebos are unable to cure, only relieve brain-modulated symptoms.

    Post Comment

    Verbal Reasoning 2 Review Screen

    Instructions

    Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.

    The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:

    1. Review all of your questions and answers.
    2. Review questions that are incomplete.
    3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)

    You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.

    Verbal Reasoning 2 Section

    Decision Making Practice Subtest Instructions

    In the section of the exam, you will be presented with questions that may refer to text, charts or graphs. Additional information may be presented within the question itself. All questions are standalone and do it share data.

    Some questions will have four answer options but only one correct answer; others will require you to respond to five statements by placing a ‘yes’ or ‘no’ answer next to each statement.

    It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.

    Click the Next (N) button to proceed.

    Some books are made into movies.

    Some books are made into TV series.

    Everyone in City X watches TV series.

    Most people in City X watch movies.

    Some people in City X read books.

    TV series and movie adaptations of books are sometimes faithful. 

    Q1 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    It is likely that a random person chosen from the City X population both watches TV series and watches movies.
    Most people in City X watch TV series adaptations of books.
    It is unlikely that a movie adaptation of a book is faithful.
    Some people in City X watch TV series and read books.
    Some movies and TV series are based on books.
    Yes
    No
    1
    0

    Explanation

    • It is likely that a random person chosen from the City X population both watches TV series and watches movies.
      • Yes. Because everyone watches TV series and most watch movies, most people will watch TV series and movies, therefore this is likely. 
    • Most people in City X watch TV series adaptations of books.
      • No. We do not know how many people watch adaptations of books, so this conclusion does not follow. 
    • It is unlikely that a movie adaptation of a book is faithful.
      • No. We know that some adaptations are faithful, but we do not know how likely this is, so this conclusion does not follow.
    • Some people in City X watch TV series and read books.
      • Yes. Because everyone in City X watches TV series, and some read books, we know that there are some people that do both activities.  (Think of this like a Venn diagram, in which reading books is a subset of the larger circle, watching TV series.)
    • Some movies and TV series are based on books.
      • Yes. Because some books are made into both movies and TV series, it follows that some movies and TV series are adapted from books. 
    Post Comment

    Some athletes are footballers.

    Some athletes are parents.

    All footballers own football cleats. 

    All parents have children.

    All athletes own sporting kits. 

    Q2 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    All footballers are athletes.
    All footballers own sporting kits.
    Some athletes have children.
    Some footballers are parents.
    Some parents own football cleats.
    Yes
    No
    0
    1

    Explanation

    • All footballers are athletes.
      • No. We know that some athletes are footballers, but we do not know that all footballers are athletes.  Be careful not to use external knowledge.
    • All footballers own sporting kits.
      • No. All athletes own sporting kits.  Because we don’t know that all footballers are athletes, we cannot conclude that all footballers own sporting kits. 
    • Some athletes have children.
      • Yes. Because some athletes are parents and all parents have children, some athletes have children.
    • Some footballers are parents.
      • No. We know that some athletes are parents, however we do not know if any of them are also footballers.
    • Some parents own football cleats.
      • No. We know that all footballers own football cleats, but we do not know if any parents are footballers. We also know that some athletes are footballers, but we do not specifically know that any of these footballers are parents.  Therefore, it does not follow that some parents own football cleats.
    •  
    Post Comment
    elizabeth Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 10 Sep 2021 22:24:57

    i thought the forth one is yes because when it say some athletes are footballer doesn't it means that some footballer are athletes and some athletes are parents so isn't that ture?

    Jesse and Wade are playing a game and in order to win the game, they must select a gold token out of a bag.  The bag contains 8 bronze tokens, 5 silver tokens, 10 stones, and 2 gold tokens.  Objects from the bag are chosen and not replaced.  Jesse and Wade take turns drawing from the bag. 

    Q3 If Jesse goes first and does not win, what is the probability that Wade wins on his turn?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.  There are 25 objects in the bag initially.  Jesse selects one token, leaving 24 objects remaining in the bag.  He does not win, so he does not select one of the gold tokens, which means that there are still 2 gold tokens amongst the 24 remaining objects.  The probability that Wade will win, therefore, is 2/24 or 1/12. 

    Post Comment

    Mrs. Blake, Dr. Joa, Mr. Litvak, and Dr. Finley teach at the same secondary school.  Each teach one of the following subjects: Spanish, music theory, mathematics, and history, and teach one of the following year levels: 8, 9, 10, 11.   

    The music theory teacher teaches children younger than the history teacher’s students, but older than the mathematics teacher’s students.

    Joa teaches Spanish to Year 10 students.

    Blake teaches the oldest students.

    Litvak teaches the youngest students.

    Q4 Which of the following must be true?
  • 0
    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. From the first point, we know that the mathematics teacher teaches younger than the music theory teacher, who teaches younger than the history teacher.  We’re told that Spanish is taught to year 10 students, so the order of subjects is mathematics (year 8), music theory (year 9), Spanish (year 10), and history (year 11).  Dr. Joa teaches Spanish year 10 (from point 2), Mrs. Blake teaches year 11 history (from point 3), and Mr. Litvak teaches year 8 mathematics (from point 4), which means Dr. Finley must teach year 9 music theory.  Note that whenever we are given all of the information about any one person, it represents a good starting point: here it is Dr. Joa teaching Spanish to Year 10 students.  A table can help represent all the information.

     

    Teacher

    Year

    Subject

    Mr. Litvak

    8

    Mathematics

    Dr. Finley

    9

    Music theory

    Dr. Joa

    10

    Spanish

    Mrs. Blake

    11

    History

    Post Comment

    Should secondary schools provide all students with laptops in an attempt to help financially disadvantaged students to perform as well as their peers?

    Q5
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.  The key bits of information in this question are providing laptops to all students and the effect this will have on helping the academic performance of financially disadvantaged students.  A is incorrect because it discusses the cost of implementation, without addressing the key information.  B is incorrect because it is speculative.  D is incorrect because it doesn’t discuss how providing students with laptops will help to bridge this gap in academic performance.  C is correct because it talks about the importance of having a laptop with regards to tackling schoolwork better.

    Post Comment

    Should grocery stores stop the sale of alcohol in order to reduce rates of underage drinking?

    Q6
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. A is incorrect because it is speculative.  B is incorrect because the statement here is not backed by evidence.  D is incorrect because it focuses on the effect on adults who want to drink as opposed to people below the age of 18, which is what the question asks about.  C is correct because it cites research that shows that grocery stores are not the main avenue that underage drinkers get alcohol from, implying that stopping their sale in grocery stores would do little to reduce rates of underage drinking.

    Post Comment

    Juliette is unsure what kind of party to have for her birthday party and asks her friends to help her decide.  Each of her friends votes for the parties they like the sound of, and can select more than one option, if they would like.

    20 like the idea of a pool party.

    5 like the idea of going to the cinema.

    12 like the idea of going to the planetarium.

    No one likes just the cinema and the pool party.

    6 people like exactly two options.

    Only 1 person likes the cinema and the planetarium only.

    2 people like all 3.

    Q7 How many of Juliette’s friends like the idea of exactly 1 of the parties?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C The best way to present the information is in a Venn diagram.  We are told that 2 people like all 3 options, so put a 2 in the centre.  No one likes a pool party and cinema only, so there should be 0 between pool and cinema.  6 people like exactly 2 options, of which 0 like pool/cinema, and 1 likes cinema/planetarium, meaning that 5 people like pool/planetarium.  Filling these numbers in, we can calculate the number of people that like only like one of the parties.  There are 13 people that like pool only (20 – 5 – 2 – 0), 2 that like the cinema party only (5 – 2 – 1 – 0), and 4 that like the planetarium party only (12 – 5 – 2 – 1).  Adding these together, we get 19 (13 + 2 + 4). 

    Post Comment

    Which of the following diagrams best shows the relation between meat, vegetables, beef, strawberries, and food?

    Q8
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.  Meat, vegetables, beef, and strawberries would all be contained within a larger circle representing food.  All beef is meat; therefore, the beef circle sits inside the meat circle.  Vegetables and strawberries are foods, so they sit in the largest circle, but are unrelated to meat, beef, or each other, so they do not overlap any other circles.  Thus, D is the correct answer.

    Post Comment
    heh Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 26 Sep 2021 13:38:23

    i dont get this quesion

    Eliza is deciding which train to take home from her office.  Train A arrives on time 70% of the time and has service disruptions 29 out of 50 times it runs.  Train B is late 1/10 of the time and has no service disruptions on half of its journeys. 

    Q9 Considering only both trains arriving on time and not having service disruptions, should Eliza take Train B?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is AJot down the information you know into a table using the ‘same, simple, positive’ rule.  Make sure information is written down in the same and most simple format and consider what the question is asking.  Here, we are asked to consider only trains arriving on time, and not having service disruptions.  Note that for Train A, we are told the probability of having service disruptions, instead of not having service disruptions (so subtract this probability from 1).  For Train B, we are told the probability of the train arriving late instead of arriving on time (so subtract this probability from 1).

     

    Train A

    Train B

    P(arrival on time) = 70%

    P(arrival on time) = 1 – (1/10) = 9/10 = 90%

    P(no service disruptions) = 1 – (29/50) = 21/50 = 42%

    P(no service disruptions) = 1/2 = 50%

     

    Train B arrives on time more frequently (90 > 70) and has more trains without service disruptions (50 > 42), so Eliza should take Train B.  This eliminates C and D.  B is incorrect because it says that Train B is on time and has no service disruptions more often than not; this means that both of these have to be probabilities > 50%.  Since the likelihood of having service disruptions is 1/2, this is equal to 50% and not greater, which means that B is incorrect. 

    Post Comment

    No university students wear uniforms.

    Some students wear uniforms.

    All boys’ uniforms contain a blazer.

    All girls’ uniforms contain a skirt.

    All uniforms consist of clothing and most also comprise shoes.

    Q10 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    All students that are not in university wear uniforms.
    Some uniforms contain clothing and shoes.
    Girls do not wear blazers as part of their uniform.
    If a boy is a student at university, he does not wear a blazer.
    If a student is wearing a uniform, she must not be in university.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

    • All students that are not in university wear uniforms.
      • No. We are told that some students wear uniforms, but not who these students are, so this conclusion does not follow.  
    • Some uniforms contain clothing and shoes.
      • Yes. All uniforms contain clothing, and most contain shoes, therefore this conclusion follows.
    • Girls do not wear blazers as part of their uniform.
      • No. We are told that boys’ uniforms contain a blazer, but we are not told that girls do not wear a blazer. 
    • If a boy is a student at university, he does not wear a blazer.
      • No. We know that no university students wear uniforms, but we are not told what they do wear, therefore some university students may wear blazers.
    • If a student is wearing a uniform, she must not be in university.
      • Yes. We are told that no university students wear uniforms, so this conclusion follows. 
    •  
    Post Comment
    A Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 12 Aug 2021 15:37:08

    The official meaning of some is 'not 0 but not all' so the second statement should be false as all uniforms have shoes not just some?

    lotta Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:07:26

    Agree with A

    C Medicmind Tutor

    Wed, 25 Aug 2021 15:51:34

    only most uniforms have shoes so saying 0 but not all fits

    Students in Year 9 were asked about ice cream flavours they liked, and the results are depicted below.  All students like at least one of the listed flavours.

    Q11 Which of the following is not true?
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    9

    Explanation

    The correct answer is DNote that the question asks about which of the following is not true, so be sure to read carefully!  A is incorrect, because this is true based on the Venn diagram – the triangle sits entirely between the overlapping regions of the circle and rectangle, therefore everyone that liked caramel (triangle) also liked both vanilla (circle) and chocolate (rectangle).  B is incorrect because this is also true – the number of people that like hazelnut ice cream (star) is 2 + 3 = 5, and the number of people that like only vanilla is 5 (part of the circle that does not overlap with any other shapes).  C is incorrect because this is also true – if we add up all the numbers in the Venn diagram, we get 36, the total number of students in the class.  We know encompasses all students because every student in the year likes at least one of these ice cream flavours, so there are no students that are not represented amongst the shapes.  The number of people that like only chocolate (part of the rectangle that does not overlap with any other shapes) is 8 and the number of people that like only strawberry (part of the heart that does not overlap with any other shapes) is 1; 8 + 1 = 9 and 9 is 1/4 of 36, so this statement is true.  D is the correct answer because this statement is false.  There are 25 students that like chocolate ice cream (3 + 8 + 11 + 3) and 22 students that like vanilla ice cream (5 + 3 + 11 + 3), therefore 3 more students like chocolate ice cream than vanilla ice cream.

    Post Comment

    A choir occupies three rows of risers, with the bottom-most riser containing 5 singers, the middle-most riser containing 6 singers, and the top-most riser containing 7 singers.  The choir is arranged in height order, with the tallest singer in position A (top-left) and the shortest in position R (bottom-right). 

    Cleopatra is not one of the 5 tallest singers nor one of the 5 shortest.

    Cleopatra is adjacent to exactly two other singers.

    Cleopatra has exactly three people in between her, and row-mate, Dean.

    Dean is shorter than Cleopatra.

    Q12 Where in the choir does Cleopatra stand?
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C From point one, we know that Cleopatra is not A, B, C, D, E, N, O, P, Q or R.  This leaves F, G, H, I, J, K, L, and M.  From point two, we know that she cannot stand at the end of one of the rows as she is beside two singers, so we can eliminate G, H (answer choice B), and M.  This leaves us with F, I, J, K, and L.  Since Cleopatra and Dean are in the same row and Dean is shorter, this means that Cleopatra’s letter is earlier than Dean’s, or Dean after Cleopatra.  This means that Cleopatra and Dean must both be on the second row, as there must be three people in between Cleopatra and Dean and this is not feasible if Cleopatra is in F as it would push Dean to the next row, and we know they are row-mates.  This eliminates F.  If Cleopatra were in J, K, or L, Dean could not be three places afterward without being in the next row.  This means Cleopatra must be in position I (with Dean in position M).   

    Post Comment

    Tropical cyclones, also known as hurricanes, are rotating storms with a lower-pressure centre or eye, and high-velocity winds and storm outside of this centre.  Tropical cyclones are called such because they originate in tropical sea areas, and wind moves in a circular motion.  Coastal regions are most vulnerable to tropical cyclones, as they are closest to the water wherein these storms originate.  The eye of the tropical cyclone generally has a clear, cloudless sky, but violent waters.  Hurricanes occur in the Atlantic and northeast Pacific Ocean, and typhoons occur in the northwest Pacific Ocean, Indian Ocean, or south Pacific Ocean. 

    Q13 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    Hurricanes are tropical cyclones.
    Tropical cyclones often affect coastal regions.
    Typhoons are tropical cyclones.
    Most eyes of tropical cyclones are neither cloudy nor windy.
    If a storm occurs in the northeast Pacific Ocean, it must be a hurricane.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

      • Hurricanes are tropical cyclones.
        • Yes. We are told that tropical cyclones are also known as hurricanes, which means that hurricanes can be called be tropical cyclones. 
      • Tropical cyclones often affect coastal regions.
        • No. We are told that coastal regions are most vulnerable to tropical cyclones, but we do not know how often tropical cyclones do in fact affect coastal regions as compared with any other part of the world. 
      • Typhoons are tropical cyclones.
        • No. There is no specific information stating a relationship between typhoons and tropical cyclones, so this conclusion does not follow. 
      • Most eyes of tropical cyclones are neither cloudy nor windy.
        • No. ‘The eye of the tropical cyclone generally has a clear, cloudless sky’ which means that most eyes of tropical cyclones are not cloudy, however we are not told about how windy they are. 
      • If a storm occurs in the northeast Pacific Ocean, it must be a hurricane.
        • No There might be other kinds of storms that occur in this particular region.  Just because hurricanes do occur here, does not mean that they are the only kind of storms that occur here. 
    Post Comment

    Echidnas are animals that belong to the family Tachyglossidae and are egg-laying mammals. 

    Echidnas descended from a platypus-like monotreme which was aquatic, though echidnas have adapted to live on land. 

    Echidnas are named as such because Echidna was a creature in Greek mythology containing both mammalian and reptilian characteristics. 

    Echidnas are also called spiny anteaters, owing to their diet of ants and spine-containing appearance. 

    Even the tongues of echidnas are spiked, allowing them to more easily catch prey.

    Q14 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    Egureions are animals that belong to the family Tachyglossidae, therefore they are egg-laying mammals.
    Some members of the family Tachyglossidae are carnivorous.
    Some anteaters are not spiny.
    The platypus lives in the water and is aquatic.
    All spiny anteaters have spiky tongues.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

     

      • Egureions are animals that belong to the family Tachyglossidae, therefore they are egg-laying mammals.
        • No. While echidnas belong to this family and lay eggs, we do not know if this is a common characteristic of members of this family, so this conclusion does not follow.
      • Some members of the family Tachyglossidae are carnivorous.
        • Yes. We are told that the echidna consumes ants and is therefore carnivorous.  We are also told that echidnas are in the family Tachyglossidae, so this follows. 
      • Some anteaters are not spiny.
        • No. We are only told that echidnas are called spiny anteaters, we are given no information about non-spiny anteaters. 
      • The platypus lives in the water and is aquatic.
        • No. We are told that a platypus-like animal (the ancestor of the echidna) was aquatic, but we do not know that the platypus is actually aquatic.
      • All spiny anteaters have spiky tongues.
        • Yes. We are told that the tongues of echidnas (also called spiny anteaters) are spiked to aid in catching prey, so this conclusion follows. 
    Post Comment
    Anonymous Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 25 Sep 2021 12:05:24

    For the last one: If I say 'Humans have 10 fingers' does that mean I am definitively arguing that 'all humans have 10 fingers'? If so, the last one should be yes. If not, it should be no. If I say 'The spiny ant eater has a spiked tongue' am I saying 'all spiny ant eaters that exist have spiked tongues?'. Whilst this could be the case, the 2 sentences are separate and have different meanings.

    At a certain company, employees have a number of skills which will be discussed at their performance review.  Those with three or more skills will be shortlisted for a promotion.  Each skill is represented by a different shape, and no one at the company has none of the charted skills.

    Q15 How many people will be shortlisted for a promotion at their performance review?
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    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. Identify any regions that have three or more overlapping shapes.  This is 31 (pentagon, oval, rectangle) + 4 (heart, pentagon, oval, rectangle) + 9 (heart, oval, rectangle) + 17 (pentagon, triangle, oval) + 11 (heart, pentagon, oval) = 72.  C is the correct answer.  Answer choice D is incorrect because it does not take into account the region that has more than 3 overlapping shapes (4).  Answer choice B is incorrect because it adds 14 (pentagon and oval only).  Answer choice A is incorrect because it does not include 9 (heart, oval, rectangle). 

    Post Comment
    yaz Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 13 Aug 2021 16:28:01

    no key

    Mikaela is studying the absorption spectra of various photosynthetic pigments, depicted in the graph below.  Spikes on the graph correlate to when certain photosynthetic pigments are more likely to absorb a particular kind of light.  She also reads about the wavelengths of light that correlate to different colours on the visible light spectrum. 

    Colour

    Wavelength (nm)

    Violet

    400 – 435

    Blue

    435 – 500

    Green

    500 – 570

    Yellow

    570 – 600

    Orange

    600 – 630

    Red

    630 – 700

     

    Q16 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    At their maximum level of absorption, chlorophyll b absorbs the highest percentage of light.
    Red light has wavelengths approximately 200 mm longer than blue light.
    Chlorophylls a and b each absorb two different colours of light.
    If one of these photosynthetic pigments is absorbing green light, it is the carotenoids.
    Chlorophyll b absorbs a higher percentage of red light than it does blue light.
    Yes
    No
    0
    1

    Explanation

    • At their maximum level of absorption, chlorophyll b absorbs the highest percentage of light.
      • Yes. The highest peak on this graph, with respect to the y-axis of percentage of light absorbed, is given by chlorophyll b (lightest grey line).  This conclusion follows. 
    • Red light has wavelengths approximately 200 mm longer than blue light.
      • No. Red light has wavelengths of approximately 200 nm longer than blue light, as opposed to mm.  Be mindful of units. 
    • Chlorophylls a and b each absorb two different colours of light.
      • Yes. Chlorophyll a (dark grey line) has two spikes as does chlorophyll b (light grey line).  We are told that spikes correlate to when photosynthetic pigments absorb different particular kinds of light. 
    • If one of these photosynthetic pigments is absorbing green light, it is the carotenoids.
      • Yes. By looking at the table, we know that green light occurs in the range 500-570 nm, so look for any spikes in this area.  The carotenoids’ spike exists partially in this range, and the chlorophylls’ spikes do not exist in this range.  So, if one of these pigments is absorbing green light, it is indeed the carotenoids. 
    • Chlorophyll b absorbs a higher percentage of red light than it does blue light.
      • No. The red range correlates to 630-700 nm, at which point there is a moderate spike in the line for chlorophyll b.  The blue range correlates to 435-500 nm, at which point there is a large spike in the line for chlorophyll b.  Therefore, it can be said that chlorophyll b absorbs a higher percentage of blue light than red light, so the conclusion does not follow.   
    Post Comment
    Anonymous Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 23 Jul 2021 01:02:03

    Third one is bullshit. All the pigments absorb most of the wavelengths of light, though some are much lower than others. Answering 'Yes' to the third one implies the photosynthetic pigments only absorb one wavelength each, while they absorb all of them just to different degrees. For a test as sophisticated as UCAT, this is embarrassing.

    Ruby is playing a game at a fair and is spinning a large wheel in order to win a prize.  The wheel has 20 segments, of which 10 amount to no prize, 6 to a small cash prize, 2 to more game tokens, 1 to a small stuffed toy, and 1 to a large stuffed toy.  Ruby wants to win the large stuffed toy and spins the wheel twice. 

    Q17 If Ruby lands on one of the segments that amounts to no prize on her first spin, does she have a higher chance of winning the large stuffed toy on her second spin?
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.  Ruby has an equal probability of landing on the segment offering a large stuffed toy on each of her spins.  This is because the wheel remains unchanged in between spins; no segments are taken away.  She had a 1/20 chance of winning a large stuffed toy on her first spin and still has a 1/20 chance of winning a large stuffed toy on her second spin.

    Post Comment

    Some animals have fur.

    All cats but one species have fur.

    All cats are animals.

    All bears have thick fur.

    Most bears have brown fur, and the rest have black fur.

    Q18 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    If something has fur, it is an animal.
    Not all fur is thick.
    Most cats have fur.
    Some thick fur is black.
    Bears are animals.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

    • If something has fur, it is an animal.
      • No. We are told that some animals have fur, but we do not know that all fur-containing things are animals.
    • Not all fur is thick.
      • No. We know that all bears have thick fur, but we do not know that any fur is not thick.
    • Most cats have fur.
      • No. Without knowing how many of each species of cat there are, how do you know that most cats have fur? For example, if the non-furred species were to comprise 99% of the cat population, then most cats do NOT have fur.
    • Some thick fur is black.
      • Yes. Some bears have black fur, and all bears have thick fur, so it follows that some thick fur is black.
    • Bears are animals.
      • No. We are not told explicitly told that bears are animals.  We know that they have fur and that some animals have fur, but this statement in particular cannot be concluded from the given information.
    Post Comment

    All movies have both audio and video. 

    All songs have audio.

    Audio can be heard, and video can be seen.

    Headphones can be used to hear. 

    Headphones cannot be used to see. 

    Q19 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    Headphones can be used to hear songs.
    Headphones can be used to see movies.
    No songs can be seen.
    Movies can be heard and seen.
    Audio cannot be seen.
    Yes
    No
    0
    0

    Explanation

    • Headphones can be used to hear songs.
      • Yes. Headphones can be used to hear, and audio can be heard, and all songs have audio.  Therefore, this conclusion does follow.
    • Headphones can be used to see movies.
      • No. Headphones cannot be used to see, therefore headphones cannot be used to see movies.
    • No songs can be seen.
      • No. We know that all songs have audio (and can therefore be heard), but we do not know if any songs have video (and can therefore be seen).  So, this conclusion does not follow. 
    • Movies can be heard and seen.
      • Yes. All movies have both audio and video, and therefore can be heard and seen. 
    • Audio cannot be seen.
      • No. We know that audio can be heard, but we do not know whether audio can be seen from the given information.  So, this conclusion does not follow. 
    Post Comment
    yo Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 08 Aug 2021 14:33:34

    this is stupid

    Binge-watching refers to watching televised content for a continuous period of time. 

    It generally refers to watching the same TV show for a long time. 

    In a 2014 survey conducted by Netflix of its users, 73% of people define binge-watching as watching 2-6 episodes of the same TV show in a single setting. 

    According to the same survey, 61% binge-watch regularly, while 37% prefer to space out their TV-watching content. 

    With regards to the experience that binge-watching creates, most viewers say that binge-watching makes shows both more entertaining and more immersive. 

     

    Q20 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    61% of Netflix users binge-watch on a regular basis.
    Multiple definitions of binge-watching exist.
    2% of surveyed people occasionally binge-watch content.
    If someone is binge-watching, they are watching the same TV show for an extended period of time.
    Over 50% of people feel that binge-watching makes a show more immersive.
    Yes
    No
    0
    1

    Explanation

    • 61% of Netflix users binge-watch on a regular basis.
      • No. We are told that this statistic refers to a particular study in 2014, and not all Netflix users.
    • Multiple definitions of binge-watching exist.
      • Yes. We know that 73% of those surveyed agree on one definition of binge-watching, which means that at least one other definition exists.
    • 2% of surveyed people occasionally binge-watch content.
      • No. 61% binge-watch regularly while 37% do not binge-watch.  This leaves 2%, but we are not told what their reply to the survey was, so we cannot assume that they ‘occasionally binge-watch content.’  This conclusion does not follow based on the given information.
    • If someone is binge-watching, they are watching the same TV show for an extended period of time.
      • No. This is ‘generally’ what is meant by the term binge-watching, however we cannot say this is always true for anyone who is binge-watching. 
    • Over 50% of people feel that binge-watching makes a show more immersive.
      • Yes. ‘Most viewers say that binge-watching makes shows … more immersive.’  Most refers to > 50%, so this conclusion follows. 
    •  
    Post Comment

    Should rehabilitation be tried on all prisoners in order to minimise rates of reoffending?

    Q21
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.  The key bits of information in this question are ‘rehabilitation’ and ‘rates of reoffending.’  The question does not ask particular type of prisoner, and specifically says ‘all prisoners,’ so whilst answer choice B makes sense, is too specific to be the best answer to this question.  C is incorrect because it relates rehabilitation to cost as opposed to the rate of reoffending.  D may present a valid point, but not discuss anything in particular relating rehabilitation to minimally affecting reoffending rates, therefore is not a strong argument against rehabilitation.  A discusses one possible outcome from rehabilitation and how it minimises rates of reoffending (disincentivising, job procurement), and therefore is the strongest argument. 

    Post Comment

    A class of 40 students go on a trip to France and stay at a hotel.  In this class, 8 friends want to stay on the same floor.  The class has rooms on 6 floors of a hotel, and there are 5 rooms on each floor.   Circles represent double rooms, which can hold up to 2 people, triangles represent hotel rooms occupied by other guests, stars represent teacher chaperones on the trip, and rectangles represent triple rooms, which can hold up to 3 people. 

    Q22 Is it possible that 8 friends can stay on the same floor?
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    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.  Since students cannot stay in the star or triangles, we can ignore these shapes for now.  Because up to 2 students can stay in circle rooms, and up to 3 students can stay in rectangle rooms, we just need to find a floor that has a minimum of 8 free spaces – this occurs on the first floor which has 9 free spaces (2 + 2 + 0 + 3 + 2).  B is incorrect because so long as a 9th student stays on the first floor along with the 8 friends, there is sufficient space for all 40 students amongst the available rooms.  A is incorrect because the students can fit on the first floor.  D is incorrect because the fourth floor has space for only 7 students, and not 8. 

    Post Comment

    The graph below shows the incidence of congenital heart disease (CHD) in newborns up to 1 year of age.

    Q23 Place ‘Yes’ if the conclusion follows. Place ‘No’ if the conclusion does not follow.
    The number of live births increases consistently from 2004-2012.
    In 2005, the 1-month incidence of CHD accounts for more than half of the total CHD cases in newborns up to 1 year of age.
    The incidence of CHD within the first year of life nearly doubles from 2004 to 2005.
    Most of the diagnoses of CHD within the first year of life in the years 2009 – 2012 occur within the first month.
    If trends continue, rate of incidence of CHD would be expected to increase in 2013.
    Yes
    No
    0
    1

    Explanation

    • The number of live births increases consistently from 2004-2012.
      • No. At the bottom of the graph, we are given the number of live births that correlate to each year.  From 2004-2005, the number of live births decreases from 43349 to 37961, so this conclusion does not follow.
    • In 2005, the 1-month incidence of CHD accounts for more than half of the total CHD cases in newborns up to 1 year of age.
      • Yes. The 1-month incidence of CHD (dashed/dotted line) is at 4 in 2005 and the 1-year incidence (solid line) is at 7.38 in 2005. 4 is more than half of 7.38, so this conclusion follows.
    • The incidence of CHD within the first year of life nearly doubles from 2004 to 2005.
      • Yes. It starts at 3.74 and increases to 7.38, which is a 1.97x increase, or nearly double.  This conclusion follows.
    • Most of the diagnoses of CHD within the first year of life in the years 2009 – 2012 occur within the first month.
      • Yes. The 1-month incidence is nearly at the level of the 1-year incidence in each of these years, so the conclusion follows. 
    • If trends continue, rate of incidence of CHD would be expected to increase in 2013.
      • No. Some years, the rate of incidence is lower than the previous year, so this is not true. 

     

     

    Post Comment

    Should people on public transport be required to wear headphones when playing videos or music to minimise disturbance to other passengers?

    Q24
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D. The key bits of information here are the requirement of wearing headphones and minimising disturbance to other passengers.  Answer choice D discusses the role of wearing headphones in relation to disturbing other passengers, and explains why this is not the best strategy.  A mainly discusses portability, which is not the key information the question asks about.  B discusses personal liberties without addressing disturbance to other passengers, so is not relevant enough.  C talks about passenger safety rather than disturbance to passengers, so this is not relevant enough to be the correct answer. 

    Post Comment

    Should over-the-counter medications be charged at the same rate as current NHS prescription medications in order to increase affordability of all medications for patients?

    Q25
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. The key information in this question is over-the-counter medication vs. NHS prescription medications, as regards patients’ ability to afford these medications.  A is the strongest answer because it discusses that making both types of medication the same price means patients have to pay more than they currently are, which decreases affordability of medication.  B is incorrect because it is more speculative than the rest of the answer choices without evidence to back this up.  C is incorrect because this answer choice focuses on the cost to the NHS as opposed to patients, as the question asks.  D is incorrect because it discusses the ethics of the question, as opposed to the affordability aspect, as is detailed in the question. 

    Post Comment

    Henry is deciding on a player for his football team.  Liam runs fast during 76% of the time, but does not score goals in 12/16 of his matches.  Arjun runs fast 19 out of 25 games, and scores goals in 1 out of every 3 matches he plays.    

    Q26 Considering only how often they run fast and how often they score goals, should Henry choose Arjun instead of Liam for his football team?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. Jot down the information you know into a table using the ‘same, simple, positive’ rule.  Enter information in same and most simple format and keep in mind what the question is asking.  Here, we are asked to consider only how often they run fast and how often they score goals. 

     

    Liam

    Arjun

    P(run fast) = 76%

    P(run fast) = 19/25 = 76%

    P(score goal) = 1 – (12/16) = 4/16 = 1/4

    P(score goal) = 1/3

     

    Liam and Arjun both run fast with the same frequency, so in order to decide who should be on the football team, look at the likelihood of scoring a goal.  Liam scores goals in 1/4 of the matches he plays whilst Arjun scores in 1/3 of the matches he plays, so yes, Henry should choose Arjun for his football team.  A is the correct answer.  B is incorrect because Arjun does not run fast more frequently than Liam.  C is incorrect because the answer choice says Arjun should not be chosen for the football team.  D is incorrect because Liam neither runs fast more frequently than Arjun nor scores more goals frequently than Arjun. 

    Post Comment

    Dmitri is a fashion designer and wants to make a 50-piece collection.  He makes a Venn diagram to help him visualise the colours of fabrics he will need to purchase from the store.  The rectangle represents black, the oval represents white, the pentagon represents indigo, the triangle represents lilac, and the heart represents silver.  The X refers to the same number. 

    Q27 How many pieces does Dmitri make that contain indigo or white, but not both?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. First, determine what information the question is asking – here it is the number of pieces that contain indigo (pentagon) or white (oval), but not both.  Since there is no overlap between these shapes, we just need to add the number of pieces that belong to each of these shapes, however in order to do so, we need to solve for X.  There are 50 pieces in the collection.  1 + 5 + 14 + 3 + 2 + 6 + 10 + 1 + x + x = 50, so 42 + 2x = 50, so 2x = 8, so x = 4.  This means that the number of pieces that contain white (1 + 5 + 14 = 20) plus the number of pieces that contain indigo (1 + 6 + 4 = 11) is equal to 31, or answer choice C. 

     

    Post Comment

    Minnie, Tanya, Emilia, Jacob, and Rufus all take part in a Model United Nations conference at their school.  Each represents a different country, non-respectively: Malaysia, Tanzania, Estonia, Jordan, and Romania. 

    Minnie and Tanya do not represent Jordan.

    Rufus and Emilia represent either Estonia or Malaysia.

    Tanya does not represent Tanzania.

    Q28 Which of the following must be true?
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    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. Make a table and fill in information as you go along.  Minnie and Tanya do not represent Jordan, so put X’s in Jordan for both of them.  Rufus and Emilia represent either Estonia or Malaysia, which means they cannot represent Tanzania, Malaysia, or Jordan.  It also means none of the rest can represent Estonia or Malaysia.  Tanya does not represent Tanzania.  From the table, we can see that Minnie must represent Tanzania, Tanya must represent Romania, and Jacob must represent Jordan.  Emilia and Rufus represent either of Estonia or Malaysia, but we do not know who represents which.  Therefore, A is the correct answer.  B and C cannot be said with certainty (though both are possible), and D is not correct as Jacob does in fact represent Jordan. 

     

     

    Malaysia

    Tanzania

    Estonia

    Jordan

    Romania

    Minnie

    X

    X

    X

    X

    Tanya

    X

    X

    X

    X

    Emilia

    ?

    X

    ?

    X

    X

    Jacob

    X

    X

    X

    X

    Rufus

    ?

    X

    ?

    X

    X

     

    Post Comment

    There are 50 chocolate bars in the store of which 10 contain nuts, 8 contain peanut butter, and 3 contain both nuts and peanut butter.  They are told that a golden ticket is in one of these chocolate bars.  The store manager knows that the golden ticket is inside one of the nut-free (free of nuts or peanut butter) bars.  Suki and Charlie are both allergic to nuts and therefore cannot have nuts or peanut butter.

    Q29 If Suki buys a nut-free chocolate bar first and it does not contain the golden ticket, what is the probability that Charlie will choose a bar that contains the golden ticket?
  • 0
    2

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. Of the 50 chocolate bars in the store, 10 contain nuts and 8 contain peanut butter, which means that there are 32 nut-free chocolate bars. Be careful that you do not subtract 3 (this is included within the 8 that contain peanut butter and the 10 that contain nuts).  The golden ticket is one of the nut-free chocolate bars, meaning that Suki had a 1/32 chance of finding the golden ticket, and now Charlie has a 1/31 chance of finding the golden ticket.  This means that B is the correct answer.

    Post Comment
    Anon Medicmind Tutor

    Wed, 11 Aug 2021 15:32:44

    Draw a Venn diagram: there are 15 (7+3+5) bars with peanut butter/nuts, so this is an incorrect answer

    lotta Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:11:44

    What a joke! very unclear

    C Medicmind Tutor

    Wed, 25 Aug 2021 16:01:58

    10 have nuts, 8 have peanut butter, 3 have both. So then 7 have nuts exclusively and 5 have peanut butter exclusively and 3 have both no? and 7+5+3 dont equal 18

    Decision Making Review Screen

    Instructions

    Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.

    The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:

    1. Review all of your questions and answers.
    2. Review questions that are incomplete.
    3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)

    You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.

    Decision Making Section

    Quantitative Reasoning Practice Subtest Instructions

    In the section of the exam, you will be presented with questions that may refer to charts or graphs containing data. Additional information may also be found within the question itself. Most questions will be shown as sets of four questions each connected to the same data.  There are some questions that standalone and do not share data. Each questions has five answers options. Your task is to choose the best option.

    An onscreen calculator is available to assist you with this section – you can access this by clicking on the button at the top left of the screen.

    It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.

    Click the Next (N) button to proceed.

    The people of Polsville vote for four major political parties every four years, which are referred to as A, B, C and D. The voting habits of Polsville over a 20-year period is shown below.

    Time period

    % votes for A

    % votes for B

    % votes for C

    % votes for D

    2000-2004

    52

    20

    16

    12

    2004-2008

    49

    23

    15

    13

    2008-2012

    51

    22

    20

    7

    2012-2016

    46

    24

    14

    16

    2016-2020

    45

    23

    19

    13

     

    Q1 Over this 20-year period, what was the percentage ‘increase’ in mean votes for A compared to mean votes for B?
  • 0
    2

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.     

    1. Calculate the mean percentage of people voting for A:

    52 + 49 + 51 + 46 + 45 = 243

    243/5 = 48.6%

    1. Calculate the mean percentage of people voting for B:

    20 + 23 + 22 + 24 + 23 = 112

    112/5 = 22.4%

    1. Calculate the percentage ‘increase’ in A compared to B:

    48.6/22.4 = 2.17

    So the proportion of people voting for A is 117% higher on average.

    Timing tip: although the question asks for the percentage difference between the mean values, we know that to get to the mean values we divide by the same factor of 5. Therefore, a shortcut would be to calculate the percentage difference between the sum % votes (243 and 112), which would lead you to the same answer.

    Post Comment
    lotta Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:12:51

    Please use the word 'difference' rather than increase. Otherwise very confusing!

    elizabeth Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 10 Sep 2021 22:40:12

    why will 217 not be the answer if the calculated answer is 2.17

    Man of reason Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 18 Sep 2021 21:15:17

    Whoever wrote this question needs a new job

    Asfa Medicmind Tutor

    Mon, 27 Sep 2021 14:24:40

    Is the answer d?

    The people of Polsville vote for four major political parties every four years, which are referred to as A, B, C and D. The voting habits of Polsville over a 20-year period is shown below.

    Time period

    % votes for A

    % votes for B

    % votes for C

    % votes for D

    2000-2004

    52

    20

    16

    12

    2004-2008

    49

    23

    15

    13

    2008-2012

    51

    22

    20

    7

    2012-2016

    46

    24

    14

    16

    2016-2020

    45

    23

    19

    13

     

    Q2 In the period 1996-2000, 66% of the population of Polsville voted in the election. The percentage of people voting D increased threefold between 1996-2000 and 2000-2004. Of a random sample of 100 people from Polsville in the 1996-2000 period, approximately how many people could I expect to have voted for D?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.   

    1. Calculate the percentage of people voting for D in 1996-2000:

    12/3 = 4%

    1. Calculate this as a percentage of the voting population:

    0.04 x 66 = 2.64

    Top tip: use the multiplier method to work out percentages faster. For example, to calculate 4% of 66, work out the multiplier – in this case 0.04.

    Post Comment

    The people of Polsville vote for four major political parties every four years, which are referred to as A, B, C and D. The voting habits of Polsville over a 20-year period is shown below.

    Time period

    % votes for A

    % votes for B

    % votes for C

    % votes for D

    2000-2004

    52

    20

    16

    12

    2004-2008

    49

    23

    15

    13

    2008-2012

    51

    22

    20

    7

    2012-2016

    46

    24

    14

    16

    2016-2020

    45

    23

    19

    13

     

    Q3 In the period 2020-2024, the percentage of votes for A is expected to drop by 20% compared to 2016-2020. It is expected that B and C will have the same percentage of votes, and D will have 9% fewer votes than B or C. What percentage of Polsville is expected to vote for D in 2020-2024?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.     

    1. Work out the expected votes for A:

    0.8 x 45 = 36

    1. Devise an equation for the voting habits:

    Let the percentage of votes for B or C = p.

    Since D will have 9% fewer votes than B/C, D = 0.91p.

    36 + 2p + 0.91p = 100

    2.91p = 64

    p = 64/2.91

    p = 21.99

    1. Work out the percentage of Polsville voting for D:

    D= 0.91p

    0.91 x 21.99 = 20.01 so

    20% to the nearest whole number.

    Timing tip: when you calculate percentages using decimals less than 1, omit the 0. For example, instead of 0.91 x 21.99, type .91 x 21.99. It may only save a second or two, but every second counts!

    Post Comment

    The people of Polsville vote for four major political parties every four years, which are referred to as A, B, C and D. The voting habits of Polsville over a 20-year period is shown below.

    Time period

    % votes for A

    % votes for B

    % votes for C

    % votes for D

    2000-2004

    52

    20

    16

    12

    2004-2008

    49

    23

    15

    13

    2008-2012

    51

    22

    20

    7

    2012-2016

    46

    24

    14

    16

    2016-2020

    45

    23

    19

    13

     

    Q4 In the period 2008-2012, 49% of the population of Polsville did not vote. What percentage of the population did not vote for C in this period?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.     

    1. Work out the percentage of the population who did vote for C:

    100-49 = 51

    0.51 x 20 = 10.2%

    1. Subtract this from the whole population:

    100 – 10.2 = 89.8%

    Common trap: this question is worded in a slightly misleading manner: it is actually relatively simple. You may be tempted to only consider the population who did not vote, which would lead you to answer option D, but you should include both the voters and non-voters alike.

    Post Comment

    Photo Central is a company that sells photos. It is trialling a new set of photo packages, which include a bundle with different types of photos and frames. These deals are shown below. Delivery costs apply within a 15-mile radius of the store. Each additional mile will incur an extra 5% on the delivery fee. Multiple package deliveries will incur a delivery charge equal to the sum of the total delivery charges; for example, buying packages 1 and 3 would incur a delivery charge of £7.50.

    Price List

    Photo package

    Price (£)

    Description

    Delivery (£)

    1

    15

    –          Six small photos

    –          Six small frames included

    3.00

    2

    25

    –          Six small photos and one medium photo

    –          Six small frames, one medium frame

    3.50

    3

    30

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Two medium frames

    4.50

    4

    45

    –          Six small photos

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Six small frames, two medium frames

    5.50

    5

    65

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Two large photos

    –          Two medium frames, two large frames

    7.50

    Q5 Janet lives 5 miles away from Photo Central. She bought photo packages 1 and 4. What was the total Janet paid?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.     

    1. Work out the cost for photo package 1:

    15 + 3 = 18

    1. Work out the cost for photo package 4:

    45 + 5.50 = 50.50

    1. Work out the total Janet paid:

    18 + 50.50 = £68.50

    Post Comment

    Photo Central is a company that sells photos. It is trialling a new set of photo packages, which include a bundle with different types of photos and frames. These deals are shown below. Delivery costs apply within a 15-mile radius of the store. Each additional mile will incur an extra 5% on the delivery fee. Multiple package deliveries will incur a delivery charge equal to the sum of the total delivery charges; for example, buying packages 1 and 3 would incur a delivery charge of £7.50.

    Price List

    Photo package

    Price (£)

    Description

    Delivery (£)

    1

    15

    –          Six small photos

    –          Six small frames included

    3.00

    2

    25

    –          Six small photos and one medium photo

    –          Six small frames, one medium frame

    3.50

    3

    30

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Two medium frames

    4.50

    4

    45

    –          Six small photos

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Six small frames, two medium frames

    5.50

    5

    65

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Two large photos

    –          Two medium frames, two large frames

    7.50

    Q6 Amy bought photo packages 2 and 3. She lives 18 miles away from Photo Central and is friends with the manager, and therefore receives a 5% total discount. How much did Amy pay in total?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.     

    1. Calculate the cost for photo package 2:

    Since Amy lives 18 miles away, her delivery cost will be greater.

    18-15 = 3

    5% x 3 = 15%

    Delivery cost = 3.50 x 1.15 = 4.025

    Total cost for photo package 2 = 4.025 + 25 = 29.025

    1. Calculate the cost for photo package 3:

    1.15 x 4.5= 5.175

    30 + 5.175 = 35.175

    1. Calculate the sum of the package costs:

    35.175 + 29.025 = 64.20

    1. Work out the cost with a 5% discount applied:

    0.95 x 64.2 = £60.99

    Top tip: this question requires a 4-part calculation, which may be time consuming. If you feel you are running out of time on the UCAT, the best approach would be to flag these longer questions for review to attempt at the end of the section.

     

    Post Comment

    Photo Central is a company that sells photos. It is trialling a new set of photo packages, which include a bundle with different types of photos and frames. These deals are shown below. Delivery costs apply within a 15-mile radius of the store. Each additional mile will incur an extra 5% on the delivery fee. Multiple package deliveries will incur a delivery charge equal to the sum of the total delivery charges; for example, buying packages 1 and 3 would incur a delivery charge of £7.50.

    Price List

    Photo package

    Price (£)

    Description

    Delivery (£)

    1

    15

    –          Six small photos

    –          Six small frames included

    3.00

    2

    25

    –          Six small photos and one medium photo

    –          Six small frames, one medium frame

    3.50

    3

    30

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Two medium frames

    4.50

    4

    45

    –          Six small photos

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Six small frames, two medium frames

    5.50

    5

    65

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Two large photos

    –          Two medium frames, two large frames

    7.50

    Q7 Bobby buys packages 1 and 2 and Melissa buys package 5 only. They both live in the same accommodation 16 miles from Photo Central. How much more expensive is Melissa’s package compared to Bobby’s?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.     

    1. Calculate the cost of Bobby’s packages:

    Work out the photo costs-

    15 + 25 = £40

    Calculate the delivery cost, given that he is 1 mile over the radius of 15 miles-

    3 + 3.50 = £6.50

    6.50 x 1.05 = 6.825

    40 + 6.825 = 46.825 total

    1. Calculate the cost of Melissa’s package:

    The delivery fee for Melissa would be :

    1.05 x 7.50 = 7.875

    Add this onto the cost of the package:

    65 + 7.875 = 72.875

    1. Calculate the difference between the two prices:

    72.875 – 46.825 = £26.05

    Timing tip: questions such as these are quicker if you use the UCAT calculator provided rather than noting numbers down yourself. Using the number keypad on the right may be worth getting used to, as it is much faster to use.

    Post Comment

    Photo Central is a company that sells photos. It is trialling a new set of photo packages, which include a bundle with different types of photos and frames. These deals are shown below. Delivery costs apply within a 15-mile radius of the store. Each additional mile will incur an extra 5% on the delivery fee. Multiple package deliveries will incur a delivery charge equal to the sum of the total delivery charges; for example, buying packages 1 and 3 would incur a delivery charge of £7.50.

    Price List

    Photo package

    Price (£)

    Description

    Delivery (£)

    1

    15

    –          Six small photos

    –          Six small frames included

    3.00

    2

    25

    –          Six small photos and one medium photo

    –          Six small frames, one medium frame

    3.50

    3

    30

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Two medium frames

    4.50

    4

    45

    –          Six small photos

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Six small frames, two medium frames

    5.50

    5

    65

    –          Two medium photos

    –          Two large photos

    –          Two medium frames, two large frames

    7.50

    Q8 Joe buys two medium photos and two medium frames for the cheapest price possible. He pays £35.85 including delivery. How far away does Joe live from Photo Central?
  • 0
    3

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.     

    1. Calculate the cost of the delivery:

    We know that Joe bought two medium photos and frames as cheap as possible, so he must have selected package 3.

    37.15 – 30 = £7.15 delivery

    1. Work out the percentage increase in cost of delivery

    7.15/5.5 = 1.3

    So there was a 30% increase in the cost.

    1. Calculate the distance above 15 miles:

    We know that for each mile above a radius of 15 miles, an extra 5% is charged on delivery.

    Therefore, Joe lives 30/5 = 6 miles outside the 15-mile radius.

    Joe lives 15 + 6 = 21 miles away from Photo Central.

    Common trap: this question requires you to work out the multiplier value in step 2. We know that this is equal to the new value divided by the original, not the other way around!

     

    Post Comment
    ,,, Medicmind Tutor

    Wed, 28 Jul 2021 21:34:02

    I think their are mistake on the solution

    steve Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 15 Aug 2021 14:24:48

    numbers in the solution are different to the question

    Husna Medicmind Tutor

    Mon, 13 Sep 2021 11:53:52

    where did the 37.15 come from?

    This table shows the prices for different short 5D movies at the local amusement park.

    Movie

    Adult (16+) Child (5-15) Concession (65+)
    Jungle Adventure £9.00 £5.00

    £7.50

    Space Race

    £8.00 £4.50 £6.50
    Monster Mayhem £10.50 £6.00

    £9.00

    Dracula Returns

    £10.50 £6.00 £9.00
    Bunny’s Day Out £7.00 £3.50

    £5.50

    Free entry for children under 5 years. Students may pay the ‘Concession’ price.

    Q9 A family of five are 72, 47, 46, 17 and 14 years of age. They watched Jungle Adventure and Monster Mayhem, and also spent £25 on snacks. How much did they pay in total?
  • 0
    7

    Explanation

    The correct answer is E. 

    1. Work out the amount spent on the films alone:

    Adult tickets: 3

    (9 + 10.5) x 3 = £58.50

    Child tickets: 1

    5 + 6 = £11

    Concessions: 1

    7.5 + 9 = £16.50

    1. Work out the total of the costs:

    58.5 + 16.5 + 11 + 25 = £111.

    Top tip: read the question carefully and ensure you don’t miss any key bits of information. It is easy to forget that they also paid £25 for snacks and mistakenly select option A.

    Post Comment

    This table shows the prices for different short 5D movies at the local amusement park.

    Movie

    Adult (16+)

    Child (5-15)

    Concession (65+)

    Jungle Adventure

    £9.00

    £5.00

    £7.50

    Space Race

    £8.00

    £4.50

    £6.50

    Monster Mayhem

    £10.50

    £6.00

    £9.00

    Dracula Returns

    £10.50

    £6.00

    £9.00

    Bunny’s Day Out

    £7.00

    £3.50

    £5.50

    Free entry for children under 5 years. Students may pay the ‘Concession’ price.

    Q10 A group of University students bought tickets to watch Space Race and Dracula Returns. If they spent £573.50 in total, how many students were in the group?
  • 0
    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D. 

    1. Work out the cost for one student:

    6.5 + 9 = £15.50

    1. Divide the total by this amount:

    573.5/15.5 = 37

    Common trap: Option A is designed to catch you out as it would be the answer if students paid the adult and not concessionary charge. Always remember to read the text surrounding any figure in the QR section.

    Post Comment
    m Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 18 Sep 2021 14:29:45

    why are the university students paying the prices of 65+

    This table shows the prices for different short 5D movies at the local amusement park.

    Movie

    Adult (16+)

    Child (5-15)

    Concession (65+)

    Jungle Adventure

    £9.00

    £5.00

    £7.50

    Space Race

    £8.00

    £4.50

    £6.50

    Monster Mayhem

    £10.50

    £6.00

    £9.00

    Dracula Returns

    £10.50

    £6.00

    £9.00

    Bunny’s Day Out

    £7.00

    £3.50

    £5.50

    Free entry for children under 5 years. Students may pay the ‘Concession’ price.

    Q11 On one day in June, 132 adults and 345 children visited the 5D cinema in the amusement park. On this day, 1/6 of the adults and 1/3 of the children watched Bunny’s Day Out. How much money was earnt from this film alone on that day?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C. 

    1. Work out the number of adults and children who watched the film:

    132 / 6 = 22 adults

    345 / 3 = 115 children

    1. Work out the charges for each:

    22 x 7 = 154

    115 x 3.5 = 402.5

    Total = 154 + 402.5 = £556.50

    Timing tip: think of the quickest way to enter fractions on your calculator, as it can often be time consuming. In this question for example, instead of multiplying 132 by 1/6, simply divide 132 by 6 to get the same answer quicker.

    Post Comment

    This table shows the prices for different short 5D movies at the local amusement park.

    Movie

    Adult (16+)

    Child (5-15)

    Concession (65+)

    Jungle Adventure

    £9.00

    £5.00

    £7.50

    Space Race

    £8.00

    £4.50

    £6.50

    Monster Mayhem

    £10.50

    £6.00

    £9.00

    Dracula Returns

    £10.50

    £6.00

    £9.00

    Bunny’s Day Out

    £7.00

    £3.50

    £5.50

    Free entry for children under 5 years. Students may pay the ‘Concession’ price.

    Q12 A family of 2 adults and some children below the age of 16 watched Jungle Adventure and Space Race. They also had a coupon for a 12% discount overall. If they paid £71.72 overall, how many children are in this family?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is E. 

    1. Calculate the price before the discount was applied:

    Discount = 12% so the multiplier value = 0.88

    71.72/0.88 = 81.5

    1. Calculate the price of two adult tickets:

    9 + 8 = 17

    17 x 2 = £34

    1. Calculate the cost of one child ticket:

    5 + 4.5 = 9.5

    1. Work out the number of children:

    81.5-34 = 47.5

    47.5/9.5 = 5 children

    Top tip: this question requires you to find out the price before the discount is applied. Remember that when you use the multiplier method for this calculation, the multiplier value is 0.88 and not 0.12.

    Post Comment
    Husna Medicmind Tutor

    Mon, 13 Sep 2021 11:57:06

    Would you not round down i.e. 4 whole children were paid for?

    Alice is investigating a unit of measurement called a furlong. It is commonly used today in horse racing. The conversions between various units and furlongs are shown below.

    Unit of measurement

    Furlongs

    1 yard

    0.00456

    1 metre

    0.00497

    1 foot

    0.00152

    1 mile

    8.00

     

    Q13 A racetrack is 28km long. What is its length in furlongs to the nearest whole number?
  • 0
    7

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1. Calculate the length in metres:

    28 x 1000 = 28000m

    1. Convert this into furlongs:

    28000 x 0.00497 = 139

    Timing tip: since the answer options go up in powers of 10, it is possible to estimate the answer. We know that to convert km to m, we must multiply by 1000 and that the conversion to the furlong is close to 5 x 10-3. The powers of 10 cancel out and we can estimate that 28 x 5 will be closest to answer D.

    Post Comment
    Radhe Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 14 Aug 2020 18:48:30

    The answer is 139 but D is given as 1390 here.

    steve Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 15 Aug 2021 14:27:20

    139 is the right answer but is not an option

    lotta Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:13:50

    System really needs a review...

    elizabeth Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 10 Sep 2021 22:45:06

    this question wasted be quite a bit of time cause it was easy so when i got 139 i thought i did sth wrong, so i calculated it again and still cannot get it and randomly put one, and now it ended up the choice isn't even there...

    M Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 18 Sep 2021 14:34:43

    Please review answers

    Alice is investigating a unit of measurement called a furlong. It is commonly used today in horse racing. The conversions between various units and furlongs are shown below.

    Unit of measurement

    Furlongs

    1 yard

    0.00456

    1 metre

    0.00497

    1 foot

    0.00152

    1 mile

    8.00

     

    Q14 Alice goes on a run a distance of 3280 feet and 1093 yards. What is the distance she ran in furlongs?
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1. Calculate the ‘feet’ distance in furlongs:

    3280 x 0.00152 = 4.9856

    1. Calculate the ‘yards’ distance in furlongs:

    1093 x 0.00456 = 4.98408

    1. Calculate the total of these two distances:

    Total = 4.9856 + 4.98408 = 9.96968 so

    9.97 to three significant figures.

    Top tip: remember to only round values at the end of the calculation, especially when the answer options are very close together in value.

     

    Post Comment

    Alice is investigating a unit of measurement called a furlong. It is commonly used today in horse racing. The conversions between various units and furlongs are shown below.

    Unit of measurement

    Furlongs

    1 yard

    0.00456

    1 metre

    0.00497

    1 foot

    0.00152

    1 mile

    8.00

     

    Q15 Alice measures the diameter of a circular track to be exactly 2 furlongs. What is the circumference of this circular track in metres? Take π to equal 3.14.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1. Calculate the circumference of the track in furlongs:

    Circumference = 2πr

    Circumference = 2 x 3.14 x (2/2) = 6.28 furlongs

    1. Convert this distance into metres:

    6.28 / 0.00497 = 1264m

    Top tip: try to use the calculator as efficiently as possible. It might help to memorise some keyboard shortcuts, for example, Control + C will open the calculator on your screen.

    Post Comment

    Alice is investigating a unit of measurement called a furlong. It is commonly used today in horse racing. The conversions between various units and furlongs are shown below.

    Unit of measurement

    Furlongs

    1 yard

    0.00456

    1 metre

    0.00497

    1 foot

    0.00152

    1 mile

    8.00

     

    Q16 Alice and her younger brother Max are having a football contest to see who can kick the ball the farthest. The ratio of Alice’s distance to Max’s is equal to 5:3. If Alice can kick a football 40 yards, how many furlongs can Max kick a football?
  • 0
    2

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    1. Work out the distance in yards that Max can kick a football:

    40 x 3/5 = 24 yards

    1. Convert this distance to furlongs:

    24 x 0.00456 = 0.10944 so

    0.109 to three significant figures.

    Post Comment

    The laptop company Luxe has released two new models of laptop: the Alpha and Beta. There are five sellers of Luxe laptops; Artech, Brightside, Compsave, Delton and Enigma. Their sales in the first six months are shown below:

    Seller

    Alpha

    Beta

    Artech

    3847

    4759

    Brightside

    2095

    3122

    Compsave

    3945

    4028

    Delton

    5689

    1002

    Enigma

    4039

    3759

     

    Q17 If Brightside only sells Luxe Alpha and Beta laptops, what percentage of Luxe laptops sold by Brightside were Beta?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1. Calculate the total number of laptops sold by Brightside:

    2095 + 3122 = 5217

    1. Calculate the Beta sales as a percentage of this:

    3122/5217 x 100 = 59.8%

    Top tip: this is a relatively simple question and shouldn’t take too much time if you use the calculator provided efficiently. It is best not to estimate for these types of questions as the numbers are not easily rounded.

    Post Comment

    The laptop company Luxe has released two new models of laptop: the Alpha and Beta. There are five sellers of Luxe laptops; Artech, Brightside, Compsave, Delton and Enigma. Their sales in the first six months are shown below:

    Seller

    Alpha

    Beta

    Artech

    3847

    4759

    Brightside

    2095

    3122

    Compsave

    3945

    4028

    Delton

    5689

    1002

    Enigma

    4039

    3759

     

    Q18 What is the difference between the average monthly sales of Alpha computers between Artech and Delton?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1. Work out the average monthly sales for Artech:

    3847/6 = 641.17

    1. Work out the average monthly sales for Delton:

    5689/6 = 948.17

    1. Calculate the difference between the two:

    948.17 – 641.17 = 307

    Common trap: read the question carefully – in the question stem it states that the sales figures are over a period of 6 months. In this question the difference between monthly sales is needed.

    Post Comment

    The laptop company Luxe has released two new models of laptop: the Alpha and Beta. There are five sellers of Luxe laptops; Artech, Brightside, Compsave, Delton and Enigma. Their sales in the first six months are shown below:

    Seller

    Alpha

    Beta

    Artech

    3847

    4759

    Brightside

    2095

    3122

    Compsave

    3945

    4028

    Delton

    5689

    1002

    Enigma

    4039

    3759

     

    Q19 The sales of Beta laptops by Compsave and Enigma were around 15% lower in the six months immediately after this data was collected. What is the percentage difference in the number of Beta laptops sold by Compsave compared to Enigma in these second six months?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1. Work out the sales of Beta laptops by Compsave in the second six months:

    0.85 x 4028 = 3423.8

    1. Work out the sales of Beta laptops by Enigma in the second six months:

    0.85 x 3759 = 3195.15

    1. Work out the percentage difference between the two:

    3423.8/3195.15 = 1.07156 so

    Compsave sold 7.16% more Beta laptops

    Timing tip: a big shortcut for this question would be to disregard the fact that the sales were 15% lower, since they were lowered by the same proportion for both Compsave and Enigma. Simply calculating 4028/3759 would give you the same answer.

    Post Comment

    The laptop company Luxe has released two new models of laptop: the Alpha and Beta. There are five sellers of Luxe laptops; Artech, Brightside, Compsave, Delton and Enigma. Their sales in the first six months are shown below:

    Seller

    Alpha

    Beta

    Artech

    3847

    4759

    Brightside

    2095

    3122

    Compsave

    3945

    4028

    Delton

    5689

    1002

    Enigma

    4039

    3759

     

    Q20 The expected sale of Alpha laptops by Delton for the second six months is 8875, and the sales of Beta laptops sold by Delton are expected to rise by 10% in this time. What is the expected percentage increase in the numbers of Alpha and Beta laptops sold by Delton?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1. Calculate the expected number of Beta laptops for the second six months:

    1002 x 1.1 = 1102.2

    1. Calculate the total number of laptops expected to be sold in the second six months:

    1102.2 + 8875 = 9977.2

    1. Calculate the current total number of laptops sold by Delton:

    5689 + 1002 = 6691

    1. Calculate the percentage increase in sales:

    9977.2/6691 = 1.49 so

    49% increase in sales.

    Common trap: remember that for percentage increase questions, a value of 1.49 indicates a 49% increase and not a 149% increase.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows trends in tourism in the small country of Rundor. Rundor is made up of two islands; Malu and Tuza.

    Month & Year

    No. visitors to Malu

    No. visitors to Tuza

    January, 2019

    4749

    2847

    April, 2019

    6883

    3858

    July, 2019

    12,028

    8402

    October, 2019

    3890

    2746

    January, 2020

    5438

    3466

    Q21 The percentage increase in the number of tourists visiting Malu from October 2019 to January 2020 was the same as that from October 2018 to January 2019. How many tourists visited Malu in October 2018?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1. Calculate the percentage increase between October 2019 and January 2020:

    5438/3890 = 1.39794 so

    39.794% increase

    1. Calculate the number of people visiting Malu in October 2018:

    4749/1.39794 = 3397 people

    Timing tip: looking at the answer options, we can immediately rule out options D and E as they are higher than the number of visitors in January 2019, and we know from the question that the number will be lower than 4749. If you need to guess an answer, ruling out impossible answers will make your guess more likely to be correct.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows trends in tourism in the small country of Rundor. Rundor is made up of two islands; Malu and Tuza.

    Month & Year

    No. visitors to Malu

    No. visitors to Tuza

    January, 2019

    4749

    2847

    April, 2019

    6883

    3858

    July, 2019

    12,028

    8402

    October, 2019

    3890

    2746

    January, 2020

    5438

    3466

    Q22 On average, what is the percentage difference between the number of visitors to Tuza compared to the number of visitors to Malu in January?
  • 0
    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    1. Calculate the sum of the visitors to Malu and Tuza in January:

    Malu: 4749 + 5438 = 10187

    Tuza: 2847 + 3466 = 6313

    1. Work out the percentage difference:

    6313/10187 = 0.6197

    1-0.6197 = 0.38

    So Tuza has 38% fewer visitors in January on average.

    Common trap: this question asks for the percentage of visitors to Tuza compared to Malu. Therefore, we need to make the Tuza figures the numerator and the Malu figures the denominator of the fraction.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows trends in tourism in the small country of Rundor. Rundor is made up of two islands; Malu and Tuza.

    Month & Year

    No. visitors to Malu

    No. visitors to Tuza

    January, 2019

    4749

    2847

    April, 2019

    6883

    3858

    July, 2019

    12,028

    8402

    October, 2019

    3890

    2746

    January, 2020

    5438

    3466

    Q23 In April 2019, 34% of the tourists stayed in a part of Malu called Thesu. On a random day in April 2019, how many tourists would I expect to find in Thesu?
  • 0
    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1. Work out the number of tourists in Thesu for the whole of April:

    6883 x 0.34 = 2340.22

    1. Divide this by the number of days in April:

    2340.22/30 = 78 people.

    Top tip: read the question carefully, especially if the options given are significantly different. Some candidates would forget to divide by 30 days, incorrectly leading them to option C.

    Post Comment
    Chris Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 20 Aug 2021 15:35:09

    Surely you can't tell because you're assuming that tourists only stay one day. That's not a good assumption, probably most stay at least a week. If tourists stayed a full month then C would be correct.

    The table below shows trends in tourism in the small country of Rundor. Rundor is made up of two islands; Malu and Tuza.

    Month & Year

    No. visitors to Malu

    No. visitors to Tuza

    January, 2019

    4749

    2847

    April, 2019

    6883

    3858

    July, 2019

    12,028

    8402

    October, 2019

    3890

    2746

    January, 2020

    5438

    3466

    Q24 Which of the following statements is true?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    The best way to tackle this question is through trial and error.

    Option A:

    Visitors to Tuza in July and October = 11148

    Visitors to Malu in July = 12028

    Therefore, Option A = false.

    Option B:

    Total number of tourists in April: 10741

    Total number of tourists in July: 20430

    20430/10741 = 1.95 so a 95% increase

    Option C:

    Through trial and error, we know this is true.

    Option D:

    Through trial and error, October 2019 has the highest ratio of Tuza:Malu but the lowest ratio of Malu:Tuza.

    Option E:

    12028 + 8402 = 20430

    20430 x 300 = 6129000 which is less than 7 million.

    Top tip: this question is very long and requires a number of steps. If a question is beginning to take too much time, flag it and move on and review it at the end.

    Post Comment

    One town’s zoos are comparing the numbers of different animals they have. The differences are shown in the table below.

    Zoo

    Tigers

    Lions

    Cheetahs

    Elephants

    Rhinos

    A

    4

    8

    12

    2

    3

    B

    3

    5

    13

    3

    4

    C

    6

    9

    7

    4

    2

    D

    2

    7

    10

    2

    3

     

    Q25 What percentage of the tigers in this town belongs to Zoo C?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1. Calculate the number of tigers in this town:

    4 + 3 + 6 + 2 = 15

    1. Calculate the percentage from Zoo C:

    6/15 = 0.4 so 40%

    Timing tip: learn the values of common fractions. Knowing that 6/15 simplifies to 2/5 (=0.4) will save the use of the calculator on simple questions such as this one.

    Post Comment

    One town’s zoos are comparing the numbers of different animals they have. The differences are shown in the table below.

    Zoo

    Tigers

    Lions

    Cheetahs

    Elephants

    Rhinos

    A

    4

    8

    12

    2

    3

    B

    3

    5

    13

    3

    4

    C

    6

    9

    7

    4

    2

    D

    2

    7

    10

    2

    3

     

     

    Q26 What would be the approximate percentage decrease in the total number of cheetahs to make the total number the same as the total number of lions?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    1. Calculate the total number of cheetahs:

    12 + 13 + 7 + 10 = 42

    1. Calculate the total number of lions:

    8 + 5 + 9 + 7 = 29

    1. Calculate the percentage decrease:

    29/42 = 0.69

    (1-0.69) x 100 = 31% decrease overall.

    Common trap: remember that in this question we are looking to find the percentage decrease. Therefore, the multiplier of 0.69 indicates that the final value is 69% of the original – i.e. that the new value is 31% lower.

    Post Comment

    One town’s zoos are comparing the numbers of different animals they have. The differences are shown in the table below.

    Zoo

    Tigers

    Lions

    Cheetahs

    Elephants

    Rhinos

    A

    4

    8

    12

    2

    3

    B

    3

    5

    13

    3

    4

    C

    6

    9

    7

    4

    2

    D

    2

    7

    10

    2

    3

     

    Q27 If one of the lions has a cub and one of the elephants has a baby, what will be the percentage increase in the number of animals in Zoo D?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1. Calculate the total number of animals in Zoo D:

    2 + 7 + 10 + 2 + 3 = 24

    1. Calculate the percentage increase with 2 additional animals:

    26/24 = 1.083333 so

    Percentage increase = 8.3%

    Post Comment

    One town’s zoos are comparing the numbers of different animals they have. The differences are shown in the table below.

    Zoo

    Tigers

    Lions

    Cheetahs

    Elephants

    Rhinos

    A

    4

    8

    12

    2

    3

    B

    3

    5

    13

    3

    4

    C

    6

    9

    7

    4

    2

    D

    2

    7

    10

    2

    3

     

    Q28 Of all the animals across all four zoos, 60% of the tigers were from India. A and B had the same numbers of tigers from India while D had none. The number of Indian tigers in Zoo B was equal to 60% of the number of lions. What was the number of tigers from India in Zoo C?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    1. Calculate how many tigers in total are from India:

    0.6 x (4 + 3 + 6 + 2) = 9

    1. Devise a formula for the number of Indian tigers in each zoo:

    If x = number of tigers in Zoo A and B,

    2x + C = 9

    1. Work out the number of Indian tigers in Zoo B:

    0.6 x 5 = 3 tigers so x = 3

    1. Substitute this back into the formula:

    2 x 3 + C = 9

    C = 9-6 = 3 tigers.

    Top tip: try not to rely on the use of the calculator too much as this is quite time-consuming, especially with an on-screen calculator. The sums in this question, for example, are all able to be done in your head.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows the results of a study carried out by a group of students in a school. They carried out the study in their school and included all 1000 people, both male and female.

    Dominant hand

    Number of males

    Right

    480

    Left

    26

    Q29 The ratio between right and left-handedness in the school is 9:1. What is the difference in the number of females who are left-handed and the number of females who are right handed?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    1. Work out the number of people who are right handed in the study:

    9/10 x 1000 = 900

    1. Work out the number of females who are right handed:

    900 – 480 = 420

    1. Work out the number of people who are left handed in the survey:

    1/10 x 1000 = 100

    1. Work out the number of females who are left handed:

    100 – 26 = 74

    1. Work out the difference between the two:

    420 – 74 = 346

    Top tip: remember that ratios can be easily converted into fractions. A ratio of right:left of 9:1 means that 9/10 people are right handed.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows the results of a study carried out by a group of students in a school. They carried out the study in their school and included all 1000 people, both male and female.

    Dominant hand

    Number of males

    Right

    480

    Left

    26

     

    Q30 If the proportion of left to right handedness remained the same among males in the school, how many males could you expect to be left-handed if the school had 1350 children, with the same proportion of male to female?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1. Work out the proportion of left-handed males in the school:

    26 / (480 + 26) = 0.05138

    1. Multiply this value by 1350:

    0.05138 x 1350 = 69.4

    Post Comment
    Chris Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 20 Aug 2021 15:46:29

    I think this is incorrect. There are 506 males in the first school and 683 in the second. The incidence of left handedness is 5.1%, so that's 35 boys. If it was an all boy's school you would be correct.

    lotta Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:18:33

    Missed out a step... you need to calculate the number of males first

    The table below shows the number of pairs of jeans sold by a clothes shop over a period of 5 months.

    January

    February

    March

    April

    May

    273

    230

    364

    338

    274

     

    Q31 The clothes shop aims to sell a target of 2000 pairs of jeans over a 6-month period. What is the difference between the number the shop needs to sell in June and the average number of pairs of jeans purchased in a month?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    1. Work out the number of jeans sold in the 5 months:

    273 + 230 + 364 + 338 + 274 = 1479

    1. Calculate the target number of pairs needed to be sold in June:

    2000 – 1479 = 521

    1. Work out the average monthly sales:

    1479 / 5 = 295.8

    1. Calculate the difference between the first value and the average:

    521 – 296 = 225

    Timing tip: get used to using the UCAT calculator. There is a memory recall button for questions like this which would be useful when you need to use the answer to a previous calculation.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows the number of pairs of jeans sold by a clothes shop over a period of 5 months.

    January

    February

    March

    April

    May

    273

    230

    364

    338

    274

     

     

    Q32 The shop introduces a sale in March annually, which boosts the sales of jeans by 23%. If there was no sale, assuming this is the reason for the increased purchases, what would be the total number of jeans purchased from January to May?
  • 0
    4

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    1. Work out the ‘original’ number of jeans sold:

    364/1.23 = 295.9 which rounds to 296.

    1. Add the total number of jeans sold over the five months:

    273 + 230 + 296 + 338 + 274 = 1410

    Common trap: remember that to find the original value, divide by the multiplier value. In this question, the multiplier value is 1.23 and not 0.23 or 0.77.

    Post Comment
    Katie Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 15 Aug 2021 06:19:48

    There is no answer option for 1410

    lotta Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 12:19:22

    congrats to the 21% of people who got this right by chance

    UCATPLEASEBE3100 Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 26 Aug 2021 14:45:07

    me getting 1410 and wasting my time trying to figure out whats wrogn

    The chart below shows the distances between various towns. All distances are in miles.

    Q33 A car travels 27 miles at an average speed of 30 miles per hour. What is the approximate time taken in minutes?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Speed = distance/time so time = distance/speed.

    Time = 27/30 = 0.9

    0.9 x 60 = 54 minutes.

    Top tip: with speed, distance, time questions always pay close attention to the units. For example, although the speed is in miles per hour, the time they ask for in the question is in minutes.

    Post Comment

    The chart below shows the distances between various towns. All distances are in miles.

    Q34 A car travels from Gleasland to Enmoor. It travels at an average speed of 15% more than usual. What is the closest estimate to the percentage reduction in the time taken to arrive at Enmoor?
  • 0
    1

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    This question mentions Enmoor which is not in the question stem, but do not be put off by this. Since there are no numbers, it is necessary to solve this through the use of equations.

    1. Devise a formula for the new time:

    If the old time taken was equal to d/s, then the time taken now will be d/1.15s.

    1. Find the percentage change between the new time and old time:

    Percentage change = (d/1.15s) / (d/s)

    This cancels out to equal 1/1.15s

    1/1.15 = 0.8696

    1-0.8696 = 0.13 so 13% decrease.

    Common trap: it may look like there is not enough information in the question, however, don’t immediately select the Can’t Tell option. It is worth remembering relevant formulae and seeing whether these can be used to work out an answer.

    Post Comment

    The chart below shows the distances between various towns. All distances are in miles.

    Q35 The cost of travelling from Gleasland to Dersound in Jenna’s car is £4.20. This is 20% higher than the cost of travelling the same distance in Xander’s car. What is the difference in price between a car journey from Gleasland to Dersound in Jenna’s car compared to Xander’s?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    1. Work out the cost of travelling the distance in Xander’s car:

    4.20 / 1.2 = 3.5

    So the cost of the journey = £3.50

    1. Work out the difference in price:

    4.2 – 3.5 = £0.70

    Post Comment

    The chart below shows the distances between various towns. All distances are in miles.

    Q36 Jenna set off from Gleasland and travelled to Beamoor. From there, she went to Coltring and then returned directly back to Gleasland. Fuel costs were 15p per mile. How much did this journey cost Jenna?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    1. Calculate the total distance Jenna travelled:

    10 + 19 + 15 = 44 miles

    1. Calculate the amount spent by Jenna on fuel:

    44 x 0.15 = £6.60

    Common trap: read the question carefully, as she does not make a return journey the same way but rather returns directly to Coltring. This would incorrectly lead you to option D.

    Post Comment

    Quantitative Reasoning Review Screen

    Instructions

    Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.

    The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:

    1. Review all of your questions and answers.
    2. Review questions that are incomplete.
    3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)

    You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.

    Quantitative Reasoning Section

    Abstract Reasoning Practice Subtest Instructions

    There are 4 different question types in this section of the exam.

    For type 1, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled “Set A” and “Set B”. You will be given a test shape and asked to decide whether the test shape belongs to Set A, Set B, or Neither.

    For type 2, you will be presented with a series of shapes. You will be asked to select the next shape in series.

    For type 3, you will be presented with a statement, involving a group of shapes. You will be asked to determine which shape completes the statement.

    For type 4, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled “Set A” and “Set B”. You will be asked to select which of the four response options belongs to Set A or Set B.

    It is in your best interest to answer all questions as there is no penalty for guessing. All unanswered questions will be scored as incorrect.

    Click the Next (N) button to proceed.

    1.
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There is an odd number of shapes in each box

    SET B: There is an even number of shapes in each box

    The correct answer is B. This box contains 2 shapes, which is even.

    Post Comment

    2.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. This box contains 6 shapes, which is even.

    Post Comment

    3.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. This box contains 5 shapes, which is odd.

    Post Comment

    4.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is A. This box contains 3 shapes, which is odd.

    Post Comment

    5.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B. This box contains 2 shapes, which is odd.

    Post Comment
    . Medicmind Tutor

    Wed, 22 Sep 2021 14:37:50

    2 shapes odd?

    6.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There are five pentagons and three triangles in every box. There is one instance
    of triangles being vertically adjacent. Size is not significant.

    SET B: There are three pentagons and five triangles in every box. There is one instance
    of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent. Size is not significant.

    Answer

    The correct answer is B. This belongs to set B because there is exactly one instance of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent. There are five triangles and three pentagons in the square.

    Post Comment

    7.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There are five pentagons and three triangles in every box. There is one instance
    of triangles being vertically adjacent. Size is not significant.

    SET B: There are three pentagons and five triangles in every box. There is one instance
    of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent. Size is not significant.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is A. There are three triangles and five pentagons. There is only one instance where the triangles are vertically adjacent.

    Post Comment

    8.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There are five pentagons and three triangles in every box. There is one instance
    of triangles being vertically adjacent. Size is not significant.

    SET B: There are three pentagons and five triangles in every box. There is one instance
    of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent. Size is not significant.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is B. There are three pentagons and five triangles. The pentagons are only horizontally adjacent once, so this belongs to set B.

    Post Comment
    Chris Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 20 Aug 2021 15:59:20

    Your rule is not complete, there are three pentagons in a vertical or horizontal row in set A and at least three triangles in a vertical or horizontal row in B. Always. This should be a C not a B.

    9.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There are five pentagons and three triangles in every box. There is one instance
    of triangles being vertically adjacent. Size is not significant.

    SET B: There are three pentagons and five triangles in every box. There is one instance
    of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent. Size is not significant.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is B. There are three pentagons and five triangles. Although the pentagons are all horizontally aligned, only two are adjacent so this belongs to set B.

    Post Comment
    Chris Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 20 Aug 2021 16:00:04

    As before, three triangles are not aligned in a horizontal or vertical row so it should be a C.

    10.
  • 0
    1

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There are five pentagons and three triangles in every box. There is one instance
    of triangles being vertically adjacent. Size is not significant.

    SET B: There are three pentagons and five triangles in every box. There is one instance
    of the pentagons being horizontally adjacent. Size is not significant.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. There are five pentagons and three triangles, however, this cannot belong to set A as none of the triangles are vertically aligned.

    Common trap: do not compare the answer options to squares within the question stem. This is not a reliable technique as there could be subtle changes between the two which influence the pattern. For example, in this question the position of the pentagons matters a lot. A similar-looking box with a different positioning of pentagons may not belong to the same set.

    Post Comment
    Anonymous Medicmind Tutor

    Tue, 24 Aug 2021 21:29:47

    How is this not faulty, surely the answer is A

    Agi Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 12 Sep 2021 05:36:57

    I think it is A as well

    11.
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There is at least one circle and one quadrilateral. 

    SET B: There is at least one triangle and one pentagon.

    Answer

    The correct answer is A. There is one circle and four quadrilaterals, so this belongs to set A.

    Post Comment

    12.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There is at least one circle and one quadrilateral. 

    SET B: There is at least one triangle and one pentagon.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. This belongs to neither set as there are no quadrilaterals, so it cannot belong to set A, and there are no pentagons, so it cannot belong to set B.

    Post Comment

    13.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There is at least one circle and one quadrilateral. 

    SET B: There is at least one triangle and one pentagon.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is A. This belongs to set A as there is one circle and two quadrilaterals.

    Post Comment

    14.
  • 1
    2

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There is at least one circle and one quadrilateral. 

    SET B: There is at least one triangle and one pentagon.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. This belongs to neither set as it fulfils the criteria for both set A and set B.

    Post Comment

    15.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: There is at least one circle and one quadrilateral. 

    SET B: There is at least one triangle and one pentagon.

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is A. This belongs to set A since there is one quadrilateral and two circles.

    Timing tip: If you feel that a question is beginning to take too long, flag it, guess, and move on. This is good general advice for the UCAT but particularly in the AR section, where you will only have 14 minutes for the whole section.

    Post Comment

    16.
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: The number of acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing upwards. 

    SET B: The number of non-acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing downwards. 

    Answer

    The correct answer is A. There are two acute angles and two upward arrows.

    Post Comment
    ally Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 14 Aug 2021 18:39:07

    i don't like this!

    Benjamin Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 22 Aug 2021 18:12:41

    This pattern is extreme and unlikely to appear in exams where you are given 40secs to figure out the patterns.

    anonymous Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 16 Sep 2021 07:16:48

    There's an error with the bottom-left box in Set A, and it doesn't fit the pattern since there are no arrows

    17.
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    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: The number of acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing upwards. 

    SET B: The number of non-acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing downwards. 

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. There are two acute angles and two obtuse angles, but all four arrows are pointing downwards.

     

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    18.
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    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: The number of acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing upwards. 

    SET B: The number of non-acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing downwards. 

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is C. There are six acute angles and six arrows, however, only three of these arrows point upwards.

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    19.
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    0

    Explanation

    Pattern

    SET A: The number of acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing upwards. 

    SET B: The number of non-acute angles is equal to the number of arrows pointing downwards. 

     

    Answer

    The correct answer is B. There are two non-acute angles and two arrows pointing down.

     

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    20.