Now that you have gone through the theory for answering Reverse questions, let’s put it to the test!

J.D. Salinger, at one time thought to be the most important American writer to emerge since World War II but who then turned his back on success and adulation, famous for not wanting to be famous, died on Wednesday at his home in Cornish, N.H., where he had lived reclusively for more than 50 years. He was 91.

Though not everyone, teachers and librarians especially, was sure what to make of it, his work “Catcher in the Rye” became an almost immediate best seller, and its narrator and main character, Holden Caulfield, a teenager newly expelled from prep school, became America’s best-known literary truant since Huckleberry Finn.

With its cynical, vernacular voice, its sympathetic understanding of adolescence and its fierce if alienated sense of morality and distrust of the adult world, the novel struck a nerve in cold war America and quickly attained cult status, especially among the young. Reading “Catcher” used to be an essential rite of passage.

The novel’s allure persists to this day, even if some of Holden’s preoccupations now seem a bit dated, and it continues to sell more than 250,000 copies a year. Mark David Chapman, who killed John Lennon in 1980, even said the explanation for his act could be found in the pages of “The Catcher in the Rye.” In 1974 Philip Roth wrote, “The response of college students to the work of J. D. Salinger indicates that he, more than anyone else, has not turned his back on the times but, instead, has managed to put his finger on whatever struggle of significance is going on today between self and culture.”

(Adapted from The New York Times. https://www.nytimes.com/2010/01/29/books/29salinger.html)

Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the text?
  • 1
    2

    Explanation

    This is a type 2 statement question, which poses a time pressure. Make sure you take some time to get to grips with the passage before using the Medic Mind Shortcuts to choose a statement to assess first. Statements 2 and 4 have the keywords quarter of a million (remember the number as well, 250,000) and World War 2 (or WW2), respectively. Statement C has the key name Huckleberry Finn. Any of these would be a reasonable place to start.

     Statement A can be found in the opening to the text, which states that Salinger was famous for not wanting to be famous. Therefore, this statement can be inferred from the text.

     Statement B requires you to search for the number, not the word as a key-phrase in the passage. It says that Catcher still sells 250,000 copies a year. However, with nothing to tell us whether these are hard copies or e-books, we cannot infer this statement therefore it is the correct answer.

     Statement C can be found in paragraph 2 which lists Caulfield as the best-known literary truant since Huck Finn, therefore it is a reasonable inference that he too was a truant.

     Statement D requires you to infer from that fact that the opening says Salinger emerged after World War 2.  Therefore, this statement can be reasonably inferred.

    Timing tip!

    Use the Medic Mind Shortcuts: extreme language, good keywords and common sense, to select a good Statement B assess first. Here, the strongest keywords are in statements 2, 3 and 4 so don’t just default to starting at 1! If you start with 2 here, you will save a lot of time for the rest of the exam by finding it as the correct answer first.

    Post Comment

    With surfing coming to the Olympics in 2020, and the Olympics heading to Paris in 2024, French organizers had to look elsewhere to hold a world-class surf competition in the summer months. They found a spot. The drawback? It’s almost 10,000 miles away: Teahupo’o, Tahiti, home to one of the most iconic and dangerous waves in the world. Just how dangerous? Teahupo’o roughly translates to “wall of skulls.”

    Tahiti, which is part of French Polynesia, beat out four other possible locations for the competition: Biarritz, Lacanau, Les Landes, and La Torche. All proposed locations are in France, where the rest of the Olympics is taking place. Organizers of the 2024 Games confirmed the decision this week, and it will be the first time since the women’s championship tour in 2000 that both men and women will compete at Teahupo’o.

    Surfers that come through the barrel of a powerful wave, like those at Teahupo’o, can experience one of the greatest highs, and high scores, of their lives. But one wrong move and they could quickly find themselves in serious danger of banging into the sharp corral reef that looms just below the water’s surface.

    Keala Kennelly is deeply familiar with that concept. A professional surfer from Hawaii, Kennelly has been called the Queen of Teahupo’o, and she is considered one of the hardest charging athletes to surf the wave. In 2011, she needed 40 stitches in her face and skull after enduring a wipe-out there. When she returned two years later, she said, she caught what she called one of the best barrels of her life.

    (Adapted from The New York Times. https://www.nytimes.com/2020/03/06/sports/olympics/surfing-olympics-teahupoo-tahiti.html)

    Which of the following is untrue according to the passage?
  • 0
    7

    Explanation

    This is a type 2 statement question with a non-specific question stem. Orient yourself by reading the first section of the passage, then select reasonable statements to start with using the Medic Mind Shortcuts. Here, statements A, C and D have a common keyword, France. You can therefore try to assess all of these with one keyword and save yourself some serious time!

     Statement A is an extreme statement, so in a reverse question you can treat it as a possible answer because extreme statements are often untrue. However, in this case, the text says that four locations listed ‘are all in France, where the rest of the Olympics are taking place’ so it is a reasonable inference that all other events are in France.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘records’, for which the synonym ‘high scores’ is found in the text. This is quite a loose synonym, and don’t worry if it didn’t occur to you. Remember the importance of being ruthless with your timing, and if you can’t find your keyword to move on to another statement. Here, the text says that surfers at Teahupo’o can experience high scores so the waves do set records.

     Statement C requires an inference but would be found when reading around your initial keyword of ‘France’. The four listed spots had been suggested for the Olympics, so must be reasonably good surf spots. Therefore, we know that France does have some good surf spots, and this statement is false, so the correct answer.

     Statement D can also be derived from the list of areas. Biarritz is described as being in France, so this is a true statement. Biarritz is also an excellent keyword if you were struggling, so this is a quick knockout and good for saving time.

    Post Comment

    Australia’s first people—known as Aboriginal Australians—have lived on the continent for over 50,000 years. Today, there are 250 distinct language groups spread throughout Australia. Aboriginal Australians are split into two groups: Aboriginal peoples, who are related to those who already inhabited Australia when Britain began colonizing the island in 1788, and Torres Strait Islander peoples, who descend from residents of the Torres Strait Islands, a group of islands that is part of modern-day Queensland, Australia.

    All Aboriginal Australians are related to groups indigenous to Australia. However, the use of the term indigenous is controversial, since it can be claimed by people who descend from people who weren’t the original inhabitants of the island. Legally, “Aboriginal Australian” is recognized as “a person of Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander descent who identifies as an Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander and is accepted as such by the community in which he [or she] lives.”

    Today, about three percent of Australia’s population has Aboriginal heritage. Aboriginal Australians still struggle to retain their ancient culture and fight for recognition—and restitution—from the Australian government. The state of Victoria is currently working toward a first-of-its-kind treaty with its Aboriginal population that would recognize Aboriginal Australians’ sovereignty and include compensation. However, Australia itself has never made such a treaty, making it the only country in the British Commonwealth not to have ratified a treaty with its First Nations peoples.

    (Adapted from National Geographic, https://www.nationalgeographic.co.uk/2019/02/aboriginal-australians)

    Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    This is a non-specific type 2 question, so make sure to read the first part to orient yourself then use the Medic Mind Shortcuts to choose the first statement you want to assess. In this case, all the statements have quite good keywords, but we can see that 1, 3 and 4 have the easiest ones (nouns and places) whereas 2 does not. Therefore, we can run through starting at 1 and skipping 2 if short on time. Then, if 1, 3 and 4 are obviously true we can deduce that 3 is the correct answer.

     Statement A has the keyword ‘Victoria’, which can be found in the final paragraph where it says that Victoria is working towards a ‘first of its kind’ treaty with Aboriginal people. Therefore, Victoria has not yet recognised their sovereignty.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘indigenous’, which can be found at the beginning of paragraph 2. It says that this term is controversial and can be used by people who are not descendants of the original inhabitants. For the purposes of the article, it is therefore not an appropriate term.

     Statement C has the key-phrase British Commonwealth, which is to be found in the final sentence. The passage says that Australia is the only British Commonwealth country to not ratify a treaty with First Nations peoples, therefore these countries do often sign treaties with indigenous populations. The statement therefore cannot be inferred and is the correct answer.

     Statement D has the keyword Queensland, found in the first paragraph which mentions that the Torres Strait Islands make up part of Queensland, so this is partly formed from islands.

    Post Comment

    Dragonflies and damselflies (odonates) represent a species rich, yet tractable insect order, which encompasses two main suborders, Anisoptera (dragonflies) and Zygoptera (damselflies). The former is generally larger and alight with their wings held out to the sides, while damselflies have slender bodies, and generally hold their wings over the abdomen when at rest.

     Several characteristics make odonates an attractive group to combine ecology with evolutionary genomics. First, they are direct descendants of one of the most ancient winged insect groups and, along with Ephemeroptera (mayflies), are sister to all other neopteran insects. Second, odonates incorporate rich phenotypic and ecological diversity in one single insect order and therefore constitute excellent candidates for ecological and evolutionary studies. As such, they have been used extensively as model species in many areas of ecology and evolution, such as sexual selection, behaviour, evolution of flight and life history theory. Third, the group shows several evolutionary innovations, particularly with regard to flight (e.g. direct flight musculature), vision (e.g. complex colour vision,) sexual behaviour (e.g. secondary genitalia), and life history (e.g. complex life cycle). The large interspecific variation in habitat specificity and complex aquatic/terrestrial life cycles makes odonates prominent surrogates for evaluating all types of freshwater ecosystems worldwide.

    Lastly, dragonflies and damselflies are comparatively large insects, both as adults and late-instar larvae, and as such their behaviours can be studied readily in the wild. Thus, the phylogenetic position of odonates, combined with their numerous evolutionary innovations make them an attractive model to bridge ecology with contemporary evolutionary genomics and can provide fundamental insights into the origin of these traits. Despite the attractiveness of this group for evolutionary genomics studies, efforts have been lagging behind other insect orders.

    All of the following are evolutionary innovations of odonates, except…
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    Here, the question keyword is ‘evolutionary innovation, which is found in the first paragraph. Evolutionary innovations are listed as the third point for why odonates are good to study. The list includes direct flight musculature (C), complex colour vision (D) and a complex life cycle (B). However, it actually lists secondary genitalia, not primary so A is the correct answer.

    Top tip!
    Slow down! Don’t slow down so much that you’re running out of time, but it’s better to read something once a little slower and get the answer than to read it twice in a panic and not get the answer at all. Here, the passage adjustment from secondary to primary genitalia is subtle, but easy if you read carefully.

    Post Comment

    Dragonflies and damselflies (odonates) represent a species rich, yet tractable insect order, which encompasses two main suborders, Anisoptera (dragonflies) and Zygoptera (damselflies). The former is generally larger and alight with their wings held out to the sides, while damselflies have slender bodies, and generally hold their wings over the abdomen when at rest.

     Several characteristics make odonates an attractive group to combine ecology with evolutionary genomics. First, they are direct descendants of one of the most ancient winged insect groups and, along with Ephemeroptera (mayflies), are sister to all other neopteran insects. Second, odonates incorporate rich phenotypic and ecological diversity in one single insect order and therefore constitute excellent candidates for ecological and evolutionary studies. As such, they have been used extensively as model species in many areas of ecology and evolution, such as sexual selection, behaviour, evolution of flight and life history theory. Third, the group shows several evolutionary innovations, particularly with regard to flight (e.g. direct flight musculature), vision (e.g. complex colour vision,) sexual behaviour (e.g. secondary genitalia), and life history (e.g. complex life cycle). The large interspecific variation in habitat specificity and complex aquatic/terrestrial life cycles makes odonates prominent surrogates for evaluating all types of freshwater ecosystems worldwide.

    Lastly, dragonflies and damselflies are comparatively large insects, both as adults and late-instar larvae, and as such their behaviours can be studied readily in the wild. Thus, the phylogenetic position of odonates, combined with their numerous evolutionary innovations make them an attractive model to bridge ecology with contemporary evolutionary genomics and can provide fundamental insights into the origin of these traits. Despite the attractiveness of this group for evolutionary genomics studies, efforts have been lagging behind other insect orders.

    All of the following are reasons why odonates are an attractive group for ecological and evolutionary genomics, except…
  • 0
    2

    Explanation

    Here, the key phrase is ‘an attractive group for ecological and evolutionary genomics’, which is found directly in the text at the very beginning of the second paragraph. The text explains that odonates are direct descendants of one of the most ancient groups of winged insects (A), and that ‘along with Ephemeroptera’ are sister to a large group, so this confirms B. Statement C is confirmed shortly after B, however statement D is not discussed in this part of the text. At the end of the paragraph, you see that they exhibit interspecific variation in habitat specificity, however the text says this makes them useful for a different reason to ecological and evolutionary genomics. Therefore, D is the correct answer.

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    Training to be a GP or specialist takes many years. After the foundation programme, there are indicative training pathways described in each curriculum which vary in length. For example, three years for general practitioners, six years for some medical and psychiatric specialties and up to eight years for some surgical specialties, paediatrics and obstetrics & gynaecology.

    UK postgraduate medical curricula are competency, rather than time based, giving the possibility of completing training and gaining entry to the specialist or GP register faster or slower depending on how quickly doctors acquire the necessary knowledge and skills. Although in practical terms, very few doctors complete training faster than the indicated timelines as the UK training system is set up for doctors to progress on an annual basis.

    As well as the time taken to meet the curricular competencies, there are many other factors which affect how long a doctor takes to complete training. They may work outside postgraduate training but still within the NHS whilst they decide what area of medicine they would like to specialise in. They may take time out of training to work as a doctor overseas, or for development opportunities such as a clinical fellowship or research. Some doctors may take a break if they are unsuccessful in applying to further training or do not get their preferred specialty or location.

    There are also reasons unrelated to breaks, that doctors may take longer to complete their training, but not progress at the rate indicated in the curricula. For example, they may fail an exam or fail to meet other curricula requirements and need extra time in training to achieve them.

    (Adapted from https://www.gmc-uk.org/-/media/documents/dc10999-evi-training-pathways-analysis-of-transition-from-foundation-to-next-stage-of-train-74522826.pdf)

    Doctors may take time out of training. According to the text, all of the following are reasons for this except…
  • 3
    0

    Explanation

    Here, the key phrase is ‘time out of training’, which is found in the third paragraph. It confirms that doctors may take time out of training to ‘decide what… to specialise in’ (A), for ‘opportunities… such as research’ (B). In the final paragraph, it says that doctors may ‘fail an exam… and need extra time to achieve (requirements)’ confirming C. However, no mention is made of travel for personal development therefore this D is the correct answer.

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    The most dangerous aspect of traveling to Mars is space radiation. On the space station, astronauts receive over ten times the radiation than what’s naturally occurring on Earth. Our planet’s magnetic field and atmosphere protect us from harsh cosmic radiation, but without that, you are more exposed to the treacherous radiation. Above Earth’s protective shielding, radiation exposure may increase your cancer risk. It can damage your central nervous system, with both acute effects and later consequences, manifesting itself as altered cognitive function, reduced motor function, and behavioural changes. Space radiation can also cause radiation sickness that results in nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue. Years after exposure, you could develop degenerative tissue diseases such as cataracts, cardiac, and circulatory diseases. The food you eat and the medicine you take must be safe and retain their nutrient and pharmaceutical value, even while being bombarded with space radiation. A vehicle traveling to Mars and a habitat on Mars will need significant protective shielding, which is nonetheless futile against some types of space radiation.

     The space station sits just within Earth’s protective magnetic field, so while our astronauts are exposed to ten times higher the radiation than on Earth, it’s still much less than the radiation a mission to Mars will encounter, and of a different type. Shielding, monitoring, and operational procedures control the radiation risks to acceptable levels to keep you safe. To learn what happens above low Earth orbit, NASA has extensively used ground research facilities to study how radiation affects biological systems, and more importantly, how to protect them. They are developing unique ways to monitor and measure how radiation affects you while living in space, and to identify biological countermeasures. Finally, methods to optimize shielding are being studied to help protect us on a journey to Mars. 

    (Adapted from https://www.nasa.gov/hrp/bodyinspace)

    All of the following are possible effects of space radiation on the body, except…
  • 2
    0

    Explanation

    Here, the question stem is the best place to exam for keywords and phrases. Here, the best phrase is ‘effects on the body’, as the whole article is about space radiation. This is found in the first paragraph, which says space radiation can cause ‘radiation sickness that results in nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue’ which confirms statements B and C. The next sentence mentions cataracts and circulatory disease, not kidney disease. Therefore, statement D is not detailed as a possible effect of radiation in the text.

    Post Comment

    The most dangerous aspect of traveling to Mars is space radiation. On the space station, astronauts receive over ten times the radiation than what’s naturally occurring on Earth. Our planet’s magnetic field and atmosphere protect us from harsh cosmic radiation, but without that, you are more exposed to the treacherous radiation. Above Earth’s protective shielding, radiation exposure may increase your cancer risk. It can damage your central nervous system, with both acute effects and later consequences, manifesting itself as altered cognitive function, reduced motor function, and behavioural changes. Space radiation can also cause radiation sickness that results in nausea, vomiting, anorexia, and fatigue. Years after exposure, you could develop degenerative tissue diseases such as cataracts, cardiac, and circulatory diseases. The food you eat and the medicine you take must be safe and retain their nutrient and pharmaceutical value, even while being bombarded with space radiation. A vehicle traveling to Mars and a habitat on Mars will need significant protective shielding, which is nonetheless futile against some types of space radiation.

     The space station sits just within Earth’s protective magnetic field, so while our astronauts are exposed to ten times higher the radiation than on Earth, it’s still much less than the radiation a mission to Mars will encounter, and of a different type. Shielding, monitoring, and operational procedures control the radiation risks to acceptable levels to keep you safe. To learn what happens above low Earth orbit, NASA has extensively used ground research facilities to study how radiation affects biological systems, and more importantly, how to protect them. They are developing unique ways to monitor and measure how radiation affects you while living in space, and to identify biological countermeasures. Finally, methods to optimize shielding are being studied to help protect us on a journey to Mars. 

    (Adapted from https://www.nasa.gov/hrp/bodyinspace)

    Which of the following statements cannot be deduced from the passage?
  • 0
    2

    Explanation

    Here, statements C and D have the best keywords so can be addressed first to save yourself some time!

     Statement A has the keyword ‘prevention of risk’, which is broadly synonymous with ‘protection against risk’ which is found in the mid second paragraph. Here, it says ‘To learn what happens above low Earth orbit, NASA has extensively used ground research facilities to study how radiation affects biological systems, and more importantly, how to protect them’. Therefore, we can assume that they are more focused on prevention as the article explains that this is more important.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘food’, which is found at the end of the first paragraph. Here, it says that food must retain its nutrition ‘even when bombarded with radiation’, therefore it is a reasonable inference that special food would be required.

     Statement C has a very good key phrase, a numerical value. At the beginning of the first paragraph, it says that the space station experiences 10 times the radiation of Earth. It goes on to say this is ‘much less radiation’ than a mission to Mars, so C is a reasonable inference.

     Statement D has the keyword ‘cataracts’, which is found in the first paragraph. It says here that radiation can cause cataracts years later. We can safely assume this will not affect the astronauts during the mission itself.

    Common trap!

    Statement D is a double barrelled statement, meaning it has 2 aspects to it. You must be sure to check both aspects are true. Statements like this, or ones with fact and reason (I.e due to, because of, as a result of), are more likely to be false.

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    Denmark is a country occupying the peninsula of Jutland, which extends northward from the centre of continental western Europe, and an archipelago of more than 400 islands to the east of the peninsula. Jutland makes up more than two-thirds of the country’s total land area; at its northern tip is the island of Vendsyssel-Thy, separated from the mainland by the Lim Fjord. The largest of the islands owned entirely by the country are Zealand, Vendsyssel-Thy, and Funen. Along with Norway and Sweden, Denmark is a part of the northern European region known as Scandinavia. The country’s capital and largest city, Copenhagen, is located primarily on Zealand; the second largest city, Århus, is the major urban centre of Jutland.

    Small in territory and population, Denmark has nonetheless played a notable role in European history. In prehistoric times, Danes and other Scandinavians reconfigured European society when the Vikings undertook marauding, trading, and colonizing expeditions. During the Middle Ages, the Danish crown dominated north-western Europe through the power of the Kalmar Union. In later centuries, shaped by geographic conditions favouring maritime industries, Denmark established trading alliances throughout northern and western Europe and beyond, particularly with Great Britain and the United States. Making an important contribution to world culture, Denmark also developed humane governmental institutions and cooperative, nonviolent approaches to problem solving.

     Religious freedom is an essentially unchallenged value in Denmark. Roman Catholic churches and Jewish synagogues have long existed in the larger cities, and the first mosque in the country was built in 1967. By the early 21st century Islam had become an increasingly important minority religion, and a significant number of Danes were not religious at all. Nevertheless, the overwhelming majority of Danes remain at least nominally members of the state church, the Evangelical Lutheran People’s Church of Denmark.

    All of the following statements are true of religion in Denmark, except…
  • 2
    2

    Explanation

    This question is relatively specific, as religion is only discussed in the third paragraph so focus here. Here, statements A and C have excellent keywords, so you may want to start with these ones.

     Statement A has the keyword Islam, which is found in the third sentence. It says here that the first mosque was constructed in 1967 – therefore it is reasonable to say that it was not prevalent until relatively recently.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘majority’, which is not actually found in the text. The text does say ‘a significant number of Danes were not religious at all’ in the 21st century – it is therefore not implied that the majority are religious.

     Statement C has the key phrase ‘Evangelical Lutheran People’s Church’, found at the end of the paragraph. Here, it says that ‘the overwhelming majority of Danes remain at least nominally’ members of this church. Therefore, it is a reasonable inference that this must be the largest single congregation.

     Statement D has the keyword Judaism. At the beginning of the last paragraph, it says Jewish synagogues ‘have long existed’, so Judaism must have been a longstanding religion in the country.

    Post Comment

    Denmark is a country occupying the peninsula of Jutland, which extends northward from the centre of continental western Europe, and an archipelago of more than 400 islands to the east of the peninsula. Jutland makes up more than two-thirds of the country’s total land area; at its northern tip is the island of Vendsyssel-Thy, separated from the mainland by the Lim Fjord. The largest of the islands owned entirely by the country are Zealand, Vendsyssel-Thy, and Funen. Along with Norway and Sweden, Denmark is a part of the northern European region known as Scandinavia. The country’s capital and largest city, Copenhagen, is located primarily on Zealand; the second largest city, Århus, is the major urban centre of Jutland.

    Small in territory and population, Denmark has nonetheless played a notable role in European history. In prehistoric times, Danes and other Scandinavians reconfigured European society when the Vikings undertook marauding, trading, and colonizing expeditions. During the Middle Ages, the Danish crown dominated north-western Europe through the power of the Kalmar Union. In later centuries, shaped by geographic conditions favouring maritime industries, Denmark established trading alliances throughout northern and western Europe and beyond, particularly with Great Britain and the United States. Making an important contribution to world culture, Denmark also developed humane governmental institutions and cooperative, nonviolent approaches to problem solving.

     Religious freedom is an essentially unchallenged value in Denmark. Roman Catholic churches and Jewish synagogues have long existed in the larger cities, and the first mosque in the country was built in 1967. By the early 21st century Islam had become an increasingly important minority religion, and a significant number of Danes were not religious at all. Nevertheless, the overwhelming majority of Danes remain at least nominally members of the state church, the Evangelical Lutheran People’s Church of Denmark.

    Which of the following statements cannot be reasonably inferred from the text?
  • 1
    1

    Explanation

    Here, all the statements have good keywords because they are about places. It is best therefore to work through from statement A to D.

     Statement A has the keywords Jutland and Zealand – We see in the text that Jutland makes up ‘two thirds’ of the countries landmass, and that Zealand is entirely owned by Denmark. Therefore, Jutland must be larger than Zealand.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘Copenhagen’, and the text says in the first paragraph that Copenhagen is primarily on Zealand – implying it has some territory on islands so is not confined to one landmass.

     Statement C has the keywords Zealand and Funen. The text lists both as these as the largest islands of Denmark, but it does not say if one is larger than the other.

     Statement D has the keyword Århus, which is described as the ‘second’ largest city, whereas Copenhagen is described as the ‘largest’. Therefore, this statement is true.

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    Constantly changing conditions of snow and ice are important hazards faced by mountaineers. Good mountaineers must have an intimate knowledge of snow conditions. They must be able to detect hidden crevasses, be aware of potential avalanches, and be able to safely traverse other tricky or dangerous concentrations of snow or ice. In snow-and-ice technique, the use of the ice axe is extremely important as an adjunct to high mountaineering. Consisting of a pick and an adze opposed at one end of a shaft and a spike at the other, it is used for cutting steps in ice, probing crevasses, obtaining direct aid on steep slopes, achieving balance as necessary, arresting a slide, and securing the rope (belaying). Crampons (sets of spikes that can be strapped on boot soles) are intended to preclude slipping and are useful on steep slopes of snow and ice and in steps that have been cut. By biting into the surface, they make progress possible where boots alone would not do. On many slopes, crampons also render unnecessary the cutting of steps. On extremely difficult snow and ice, ice pitons and carabiners are used. The pitons, when driven in, are allowed to freeze in place.

    In climbing long snow slopes, a tedious task, it is necessary to strike a slow and rhythmic pace that can be sustained for a long time. It is desirable to make a start on the mountain early in the day when the snow is in hard condition. As in all phases of mountaineering, judgment is important when engaging in snow and ice climbing. The length of the climb, the nature of the weather, the effect of the sun’s heat on snow and ice, and the potential avalanche danger must all be considered.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/sports/mountaineering/Techniques#ref1221803)

    All of the following are potential uses for an ice axe according to the article, except…
  • 2
    0

    Explanation

    Here, the keyword from the question is the best place to start – the best word here is ‘ice axe’. In the first paragraph, the text lists A, B and D as possible uses for an ice axe. However, although it lists securing a rope as a possible use, it does not mention cutting ropes so C is the correct answer here.

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    In comparison with the history of Western theatre, the history of scenic design is short. Whereas the golden age of Greek theatre occurred more than two millennia ago, the intensive use of scenery in the theatre did not begin until after 1600, and the position of scenic designer—the individual responsible for the visual appearance and function of the scenic and property elements of a theatrical production—did not become a commonly credited production position until the mid-1920s. 

    The term scenery can be defined as any two- or three-dimensional background or environmental element that is placed on the stage so as to suggest the historical period, locale, and mood of the play being performed. While properties—e.g., set props (sofas, chairs, draperies, and so forth) and hand props (any noncostume items handled by the actors, such as glassware, cutlery, or books)—do the same, they generally are not considered to be scenery.

     There was very little scenery used in Western theatres before the early 1600s. While Greek and Roman plays were performed outdoors in elaborate and imposing structures, there is little physical evidence to suggest that scenery, as defined above, was used on these stages. Medieval European drama used standardized scenic elements called “mansions” (representations of heaven, hell, the Garden of Eden, and so forth) to depict the various locations needed in the liturgical drama that constituted the bulk of the period’s plays. Mansions were often mounted in the nave of a church, on a platform in front of a church, or in a town square. They were also used in combination with pageant wagons, which usually held between one and three mansions, were pulled from location to location, and were arranged to create the appropriate setting.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/art/stagecraft)

    All of the following aspects of a play could be considered scenery, except…
  • 1
    1

    Explanation

    Here, the key to the question is finding the definition of scenery in the text, then assessing the individual statements to see if they match. Scenery is defined in the text as any ‘two or three-dimensional background’ and goes on to say that ‘props such as chairs’ are not scenery. By this definition, a table is not considered scenery – so B is the correct answer here.

    Post Comment

    In comparison with the history of Western theatre, the history of scenic design is short. Whereas the golden age of Greek theatre occurred more than two millennia ago, the intensive use of scenery in the theatre did not begin until after 1600, and the position of scenic designer—the individual responsible for the visual appearance and function of the scenic and property elements of a theatrical production—did not become a commonly credited production position until the mid-1920s. 

    The term scenery can be defined as any two- or three-dimensional background or environmental element that is placed on the stage so as to suggest the historical period, locale, and mood of the play being performed. While properties—e.g., set props (sofas, chairs, draperies, and so forth) and hand props (any noncostume items handled by the actors, such as glassware, cutlery, or books)—do the same, they generally are not considered to be scenery.

     There was very little scenery used in Western theatres before the early 1600s. While Greek and Roman plays were performed outdoors in elaborate and imposing structures, there is little physical evidence to suggest that scenery, as defined above, was used on these stages. Medieval European drama used standardized scenic elements called “mansions” (representations of heaven, hell, the Garden of Eden, and so forth) to depict the various locations needed in the liturgical drama that constituted the bulk of the period’s plays. Mansions were often mounted in the nave of a church, on a platform in front of a church, or in a town square. They were also used in combination with pageant wagons, which usually held between one and three mansions, were pulled from location to location, and were arranged to create the appropriate setting.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/art/stagecraft)

    Which of the following statements cannot be reasonably inferred from the passage?
  • 2
    0

    Explanation

    Statements B and D have the best keywords here, so you may wish to start with these.

     Statement A has the keyword ‘religious’, and ‘medieval’. In the final paragraph, the text says that ‘Medieval drama (used ‘mansions’) needed in the liturgical drama that constituted the bulk of the period’s plays’. Therefore, most medieval plays were religious.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘Ancient Greek’. In the final paragraph, the text says ‘there is little evidence’ that scenery per se was used in Greek and Roman productions, therefore this statement is true.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘churches’, discussed in the same place as medieval plays. It says here that plays were often mounted ‘on the nave of a church’, but also lists other places such as in front of the church or in the town square. It does not say how frequently plays were held in these places, so statement C is not a fair inference.

     Statement D has the key phrase ‘300 years’, which on scanning is not directly mentioned in the text. Search instead for any dates – in the text it says that scenery began being intensively used in the 1600s, but designers were not credited until 1920. Therefore, it was a little over 300 years that scenery was in use, but designers were not credited.

    Top tip!

    Any date, if not directly found in the text, can be substituted to a keyword search for any date, as this will invariably find you the answer you are looking for.

    Post Comment

    The earliest known journalistic product was a news sheet circulated in ancient Rome: the Acta Diurna, said to date from before 59 BCE. The Acta Diurna recorded important daily events such as public speeches. It was published daily and hung in prominent places. In China during the Tang dynasty, a court circular called a bao, or “report,” was issued to government officials. This gazette appeared in various forms and under various names more or less continually to the end of the Qing dynasty in 1911. The first regularly published newspapers appeared in German cities and in Antwerp about 1609.

    At first hindered by government-imposed censorship, taxes, and other restrictions, newspapers in the 18th century came to enjoy the reportorial freedom and indispensable function that they have retained to the present day. The growing demand for newspapers owing to the spread of literacy and the introduction of steam- and then electric-driven presses caused the daily circulation of newspapers to rise from the thousands to the hundreds of thousands and eventually to the millions.

    Magazines, which had started in the 17th century as learned journals, began to feature opinion-forming articles on current affairs, such as those in the Spectator. Appearing in the 1830s were cheap mass-circulation magazines aimed at a wider and less well-educated public. The cost of large-scale news gathering led to the formation of news agencies, organizations that sold their international journalistic reporting to many different individual newspapers and magazines. The invention of the telegraph and then radio and television brought about a great increase in the speed and timeliness of journalistic activity and, at the same time, provided massive new outlets and audiences for their electronically distributed products.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/topic/journalism)

    All of the following can be reasonably inferred from the article, except…
  • 0
    4

    Explanation

    Here, statements A and B have the best keywords so it would be fair to start at the beginning.

     Statement A has the keywords Tang and Qing. These are found in the first paragraph, which says the bao of China were circulated from the Tang dynasty to the Qing dynasty, implying that the Tang dynasty did indeed precede the Qing dynasty.

     Statement B has the key phrase ‘steam-driven printing press’, found in the second paragraph. This is one of the factors given for increasing circulation, however others are given. We cannot assume therefore that without this one factor, the circulation would not have increased.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘television’, which is found in the final paragraph. It says here that the television ‘brought about a great increase’ in several aspects of journalism, so it was an important advent.

     Statement D has the key phrase ‘educated populations’. In the final paragraph, the text says that magazines started as ‘learned journals’, implying an educated audience.

    Post Comment

    The earliest known journalistic product was a news sheet circulated in ancient Rome: the Acta Diurna, said to date from before 59 BCE. The Acta Diurna recorded important daily events such as public speeches. It was published daily and hung in prominent places. In China during the Tang dynasty, a court circular called a bao, or “report,” was issued to government officials. This gazette appeared in various forms and under various names more or less continually to the end of the Qing dynasty in 1911. The first regularly published newspapers appeared in German cities and in Antwerp about 1609.

    At first hindered by government-imposed censorship, taxes, and other restrictions, newspapers in the 18th century came to enjoy the reportorial freedom and indispensable function that they have retained to the present day. The growing demand for newspapers owing to the spread of literacy and the introduction of steam- and then electric-driven presses caused the daily circulation of newspapers to rise from the thousands to the hundreds of thousands and eventually to the millions.

    Magazines, which had started in the 17th century as learned journals, began to feature opinion-forming articles on current affairs, such as those in the Spectator. Appearing in the 1830s were cheap mass-circulation magazines aimed at a wider and less well-educated public. The cost of large-scale news gathering led to the formation of news agencies, organizations that sold their international journalistic reporting to many different individual newspapers and magazines. The invention of the telegraph and then radio and television brought about a great increase in the speed and timeliness of journalistic activity and, at the same time, provided massive new outlets and audiences for their electronically distributed products.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/topic/journalism)

    Which of the following statements is not true, according to the passage?
  • 0
    2

    Explanation

    Here, statement D has the best keyword so you may want to start here.

     Statement A has the keyword Germany, and at the end of the first paragraph the text says that the first regularly published newspapers were established here, specifically in Antwerp.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘government’, and at the beginning of the second paragraph newspapers are described as ‘at first hindered by government-imposed censorship’, agreeing that government was a limiting factor.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘education’, and in the second paragraph growing literacy is established as a cause of increased circulation of newspapers. Therefore, education did contribute.

     Statement D has the key phrase ‘Acta Diurna’, found in the first paragraph. According to the text, this was hung in public places, whereas the Tang dynasty bao was distributed among government officials. This is therefore not true.

    Post Comment

    Wartburg Castle, renowned in German history and legend, stands on a steep hill overlooking the town of Eisenach, Thuringia, Germany. The hill was fortified as early as 1080. The landgrave Hermann I of Thuringia (died 1217) rebuilt the castle and made it the seat of a lively court frequented by vagrant poets and musicians, including Walther von der Vogelweide and Wolfram von Eschenbach.

    The character of Hermann’s Wartburg was recalled a generation or two later in the poem known as the Sängerkrieg, in which poets compete in singing their rival patrons’ praises. Richard Wagner adapted the story for his opera Tannhäuser (1845). From 1485 the castle and the surrounding lands belonged to the Ernestine dukes of Saxony. The contemporary owner of the castle, Frederick III of Saxony, sheltered Martin Luther in the Wartburg from May 1521 to March 1522, and Luther began his German translation of the original Greek New Testament there. In 1817 the Wartburg was the scene of a festival celebrating the Luther tercentenary. A nationalist demonstration by Protestant German students led to repressive measures by governments of the conservative German states. Charles Alexander of the Ernestine house of Saxe-Weimar-Eisenach (1818–1901) was the chief sponsor of a great restoration of the Wartburg, which had decayed since Luther’s time. The castle, which includes the Romanesque palace of the Thuringian landgraves, was made a World Heritage site in 1999.

    All of the following are true of Wartburg Castle, except…
  • 1
    1

    Explanation

    Here, the question stem keyword is Wartburg Castle, however the article is about this so it is a type 2 question in disguise. Statements A and B have dates, which are easy to find, and statement D has a name which is also easy. Therefore, you could skip C on your run-through.

     Statement A has the keyword 1500, which is not directly mentioned in the text however it does say that from 1485 the castle was owned by the Ernestine dukes of Saxony. Therefore, it is a reasonable inference that the same line owned it in 1500.

     Statement B has the key dates ‘1818’ and ‘1901’. These are found in the text where it says that Charles Alexander, who lived between these dates, restored the castle. Therefore, it is true that the castle must have been restored between these dates.

     Statement C has the key phrase ‘World Heritage Site’, which is found in the final paragraph. Here, it says that the site was made a World Heritage site in 1999, so it has been one.

     Statement D has the key name ‘Hermann I of Thuringia’, which is found in the first paragraph. Here, it says that Hermann rebuilt the castle, therefore this statement is a slight but significant passage adjustment.

    Post Comment

    Wartburg Castle, renowned in German history and legend, stands on a steep hill overlooking the town of Eisenach, Thuringia, Germany. The hill was fortified as early as 1080. The landgrave Hermann I of Thuringia (died 1217) rebuilt the castle and made it the seat of a lively court frequented by vagrant poets and musicians, including Walther von der Vogelweide and Wolfram von Eschenbach.

    The character of Hermann’s Wartburg was recalled a generation or two later in the poem known as the Sängerkrieg, in which poets compete in singing their rival patrons’ praises. Richard Wagner adapted the story for his opera Tannhäuser (1845). From 1485 the castle and the surrounding lands belonged to the Ernestine dukes of Saxony. The contemporary owner of the castle, Frederick III of Saxony, sheltered Martin Luther in the Wartburg from May 1521 to March 1522, and Luther began his German translation of the original Greek New Testament there. In 1817 the Wartburg was the scene of a festival celebrating the Luther tercentenary. A nationalist demonstration by Protestant German students led to repressive measures by governments of the conservative German states. Charles Alexander of the Ernestine house of Saxe-Weimar-Eisenach (1818–1901) was the chief sponsor of a great restoration of the Wartburg, which had decayed since Luther’s time. The castle, which includes the Romanesque palace of the Thuringian landgraves, was made a World Heritage site in 1999.

    All of the following statements can be deduced from the text, except…
  • 0
    10

    Explanation

    Here, statements A, B and C have names which are excellent places to start.

     Statement A has the key name ‘Frederick III’. The text describes this man as the contemporary owner of the castle in 1521, and that from 1485 onwards it was owned by the Ernestine dukes of Saxony. Therefore, Frederick III was an Ernestine duke.

     Statement B has the name Wolfram von Eschenbach, described as a performer who performed at the castle. Therefore, he was not an owner.

     Statement C has the key name ‘Charles Alexander’, and according to the text he was the chief sponsor of a restoration, but not that he owned the castle. He was an Ernestine duke, so he may have, but the text does not explicitly say this. It therefore cannot be discerned.

     Statement D has the keyword ‘fortifications’, and at the beginning of the passage the text says that ‘the hill was fortified as early as 1080’, therefore fortifications did exist before the castle itself.

    Post Comment
    Tinashe Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 29 Aug 2020 05:23:31

    it says the castle was rebuilt , which implies that it was already built. the dates of when it was first built are not specified, therefore shouldn't D be the only answer that cannot be deduced ?

    Katherine Martin Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 05 Aug 2021 01:28:51

    Question 17, the answer that supposedly cannot be deduced from the text is explicitly mentioned in the text. The correct answer is that we cannot deduce from the text that Wolfram von Eschenbach never owned the castle but he is explicitly said to be a visiting entertainer, "the seat of a lively court frequented by vagrant poets and musicians, including Walther von Vogelweide and Wolfram von Eschenbach." The solution even references this saying "statement B has the name of Wolfram von Eschenbach described as a performer who performed at the castle. Therefore, he was not an owner." There was no correct answer to this question.

    Benedict de Spinoza was born on November 24, 1632 and was a prominent Dutch Jewish philosopher, one of the foremost exponents of 17th-century Rationalism and one of the early and seminal figures of the Enlightenment. His masterwork is the treatise Ethics, published in 1677.

    Spinoza’s Portuguese parents were among many Jews who were forcibly converted to Christianity but continued to practice Judaism in secret. After being arrested, tortured, and condemned by the inquisition in Portugal, they escaped to Amsterdam, where Spinoza’s father, Michael, became an important merchant and eventually served as one of the directors of the city’s synagogue. Spinoza’s mother, Hannah, died in 1638, shortly before his sixth birthday. The Jewish community in Amsterdam was unique in its time. It originally comprised people who had been raised in Spain, Portugal, France, or Italy as Christians and who had fled to Amsterdam to escape persecution and to practice their ancestral religion freely. The community was granted toleration by the Dutch authorities on the condition that it not cause scandal or allow any of its members to become public charges.

    The community developed many social and educational institutions, including an all-male Talmud-Torah school founded in 1638. The students there were taught by adult males, many of whom had been trained at Roman Catholic schools before their arrival in Amsterdam. They taught the younger men more or less what they themselves had learned but also added instruction in various Jewish subjects, though it is not clear how much traditional Judaism was included in the curriculum. As a student in this school, the young Spinoza probably learned Hebrew and studied some Jewish philosophy, including that of Moses Maimonides.

    All of the following are true of Spinoza’s parents, except…
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    Here, the question keyword is ‘parents’, and Spinoza’s parents are discussed in the second paragraph.

     The text says that Spinoza’s father ‘eventually served as one of the directors of the city’s synagogue’, confirming statement A.

     For statement B, the text says Spinoza’s mother died ‘shortly before his sixth birthday’, so actually she died when he was 5 making this statement untrue.

     For statement C, the text says that his parents moved to Amsterdam after ‘being… condemned by the inquisition in Portugal’, therefore this is true.

     Statement D is discussed in the first sentence which says they were forcibly converted to Christianity but continued to practice Judaism, making them only nominally Christian.

    Post Comment

    Benedict de Spinoza was born on November 24, 1632 and was a prominent Dutch Jewish philosopher, one of the foremost exponents of 17th-century Rationalism and one of the early and seminal figures of the Enlightenment. His masterwork is the treatise Ethics, published in 1677.

    Spinoza’s Portuguese parents were among many Jews who were forcibly converted to Christianity but continued to practice Judaism in secret. After being arrested, tortured, and condemned by the inquisition in Portugal, they escaped to Amsterdam, where Spinoza’s father, Michael, became an important merchant and eventually served as one of the directors of the city’s synagogue. Spinoza’s mother, Hannah, died in 1638, shortly before his sixth birthday. The Jewish community in Amsterdam was unique in its time. It originally comprised people who had been raised in Spain, Portugal, France, or Italy as Christians and who had fled to Amsterdam to escape persecution and to practice their ancestral religion freely. The community was granted toleration by the Dutch authorities on the condition that it not cause scandal or allow any of its members to become public charges.

    The community developed many social and educational institutions, including an all-male Talmud-Torah school founded in 1638. The students there were taught by adult males, many of whom had been trained at Roman Catholic schools before their arrival in Amsterdam. They taught the younger men more or less what they themselves had learned but also added instruction in various Jewish subjects, though it is not clear how much traditional Judaism was included in the curriculum. As a student in this school, the young Spinoza probably learned Hebrew and studied some Jewish philosophy, including that of Moses Maimonides.

    All of the following statements are true, except…
  • 1
    1

    Explanation

    Here, A, B and D all have the keyword ‘Talmud-Torah’, which is discussed in the final paragraph.

    Initially, the school is described as ‘all-male’ which confirms statement D.

     The text also says ‘it is not clear’ how much traditional Judaism was taught, therefore A is true in that this traditionalist teaching may not have been the focus.

     Near the end of the passage, the text says Spinoza ‘probably’ learned Hebrew, so this extreme statement takes itself a little too far.

     Statement C is addressed using the keyword ‘Amsterdam’ and ‘community’, and in the second paragraph the text confirms that this statement is true of the early community.

    Post Comment

    Chinese exists in a number of varieties that are popularly called dialects but that are usually classified as separate languages by scholars. More people speak a variety of Chinese as a native language than any other language in the world, and Modern Standard Chinese is one of the six official languages of the United Nations.

    The spoken varieties of Chinese are mutually unintelligible to their respective speakers. They differ from each other to about the same extent as the modern Romance languages. Most of the differences among them occur in pronunciation and vocabulary; there are few grammatical differences. These languages include Mandarin in the northern, central, and western parts of China; Wu; Northern and Southern Min; Gan (Kan); Hakka (Kejia); and Xiang; and Cantonese (Yue) in the southeastern part of the country.

    All the Chinese languages share a common literary language (wenyan), written in characters and based on a common body of literature. This literary language has no single standard of pronunciation; a speaker of a language reads texts according to the rules of pronunciation of his own language. Before 1917 the wenyan was used for almost all writing; since that date it has become increasingly acceptable to write in the vernacular style (baihua) instead, and the old literary language is dying out in the daily life of modern China.

    In the early 1900s a program for the unification of the national language, which is based on Mandarin, was launched; this resulted in Modern Standard Chinese. In 1956 a new system of romanization called Pinyin, based on the pronunciation of the characters in the Beijing dialect, was adopted as an educational instrument to help in the spread of the modern standard language. Modified in 1958, the system was later formally prescribed for use in all diplomatic documents and foreign-language publications in English-speaking countries.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/topic/Chinese-languages)

    All of the following are true of written Chinese, except…
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    Here, the statement keyword is ‘written chinese’, which is not massively specific but should nonetheless direct you to the last couple of paragraphs. Statements A and C have the best keywords, so you could start with these.

     Pinyin is the keyword for statement A and is found in the final paragraph. The text says that this writing scheme is ‘a new system of romanization’, therefore this statement is true.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘pronunciation’, and in the third paragraph the text says that written Chinese ‘has no single standard of pronunciation’, confirming this statement as true.

     Statement C has the keyword wenyan, which is discussed in the third paragraph where the text says ‘since (1917)… the old literary language is dying out’ which confirms the statement.

     Statement D has the keyword Beijing, and the text confirms that Pinyin is based on the Beijing dialect. However, the text does not confirm what the Beijing dialect is, so we cannot assume it is Beijing Cantonese.

    Post Comment

    Chinese exists in a number of varieties that are popularly called dialects but that are usually classified as separate languages by scholars. More people speak a variety of Chinese as a native language than any other language in the world, and Modern Standard Chinese is one of the six official languages of the United Nations.

    The spoken varieties of Chinese are mutually unintelligible to their respective speakers. They differ from each other to about the same extent as the modern Romance languages. Most of the differences among them occur in pronunciation and vocabulary; there are few grammatical differences. These languages include Mandarin in the northern, central, and western parts of China; Wu; Northern and Southern Min; Gan (Kan); Hakka (Kejia); and Xiang; and Cantonese (Yue) in the southeastern part of the country.

    All the Chinese languages share a common literary language (wenyan), written in characters and based on a common body of literature. This literary language has no single standard of pronunciation; a speaker of a language reads texts according to the rules of pronunciation of his own language. Before 1917 the wenyan was used for almost all writing; since that date it has become increasingly acceptable to write in the vernacular style (baihua) instead, and the old literary language is dying out in the daily life of modern China.

    In the early 1900s a program for the unification of the national language, which is based on Mandarin, was launched; this resulted in Modern Standard Chinese. In 1956 a new system of romanization called Pinyin, based on the pronunciation of the characters in the Beijing dialect, was adopted as an educational instrument to help in the spread of the modern standard language. Modified in 1958, the system was later formally prescribed for use in all diplomatic documents and foreign-language publications in English-speaking countries.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/topic/Chinese-languages)

    All of the following statements are true according to the passage, except…
  • 1
    2

    Explanation

    Here, statements B and C have the best keywords so you may want to start with these.

     Statement A has the keywords Mandarin and Cantonese. Unfortunately, where these are mentioned in the text the statement is not answered. Therefore, you should switch your keyword to ‘understand’ which is linguistically synonymous with ‘intelligible’, found in the second paragraph. Here, it says that the dialects are ‘mutually unintelligible’ – therefore the statement is true.

     Statement B has the keyword Pinyin again, which is found in the final paragraph. Here, it says that the alphabet was modernised in 1958 and later prescribed for all diplomatic documents, so it was not in 1958 that this occurred. Therefore, this statement is false.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘UN’, which is found in long form in the text in the first paragraph. Here, it says that Modern Standard Chinese is one of 6 languages, so statement C just rephrases this simple fact and is true.

     Statement D has the keyword ‘more people’, alluding to numerical values or comparative figures. This is actually found in the second sentence so you may have caught it on your initial readthrough, and it is a true statement.

    Post Comment
    Katherine Martin Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 05 Aug 2021 01:34:12

    Neither statement B nor statement D can be inferred from the text. Statement D refers to the number of people who speak a Chinese dialect but not as a native language, as the source text refers to

    Work is essential in providing the basic physical needs of food, clothing, and shelter. But work involves more than the use of tools and techniques. Advances in technology, which will always occur, help to extend the reach of the hand, expand muscle power, enlarge the senses, and multiply the capacities of the mind. The story of work is still unfolding, with great changes taking place throughout the world and in a more accelerated fashion than ever before. The form and nature of the work process help determine the character of a civilization; in turn, a society’s economic, political, and cultural characteristics shape the form and nature of the work process as well as the role and status of the worker within the society.

    Organization of work may have begun before the evolution of Homo sapiens. Along with tools, a more complex brain structure, and linguistic communication, the division of labour (job specialization) may have been responsible for starting the human conquest of nature and differentiating human beings from other animal species. In the earliest stages of human civilization, work was confined to simple tasks involving the most basic of human needs: food, childcare, and shelter. A division of labour likely resulted when some individuals showed proficiency in particular tasks, such as hunting animals or gathering plants for food. As a means of increasing the food supply, prehistoric peoples could organize the work of foraging and hunting and, later, agriculture. There could be no widespread geographic division of labour, however, because populations were sparse and isolated. The uncertain availability of food allowed little surplus for exchange, and there were few contacts with groups in different places that might have specialized in obtaining different foods.

    According to the author, all of the following characteristics of a society shape the form and nature of work except…
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    Here, the question stem is a long key phrase and you can search for it in the text, where you will find it at the end of the first paragraph. It lists economic, political and cultural characteristics (A, B and D) but leaves out philosophical (C), so this is the correct answer.

    Post Comment

    Work is essential in providing the basic physical needs of food, clothing, and shelter. But work involves more than the use of tools and techniques. Advances in technology, which will always occur, help to extend the reach of the hand, expand muscle power, enlarge the senses, and multiply the capacities of the mind. The story of work is still unfolding, with great changes taking place throughout the world and in a more accelerated fashion than ever before. The form and nature of the work process help determine the character of a civilization; in turn, a society’s economic, political, and cultural characteristics shape the form and nature of the work process as well as the role and status of the worker within the society.

    Organization of work may have begun before the evolution of Homo sapiens. Along with tools, a more complex brain structure, and linguistic communication, the division of labour (job specialization) may have been responsible for starting the human conquest of nature and differentiating human beings from other animal species. In the earliest stages of human civilization, work was confined to simple tasks involving the most basic of human needs: food, childcare, and shelter. A division of labour likely resulted when some individuals showed proficiency in particular tasks, such as hunting animals or gathering plants for food. As a means of increasing the food supply, prehistoric peoples could organize the work of foraging and hunting and, later, agriculture. There could be no widespread geographic division of labour, however, because populations were sparse and isolated. The uncertain availability of food allowed little surplus for exchange, and there were few contacts with groups in different places that might have specialized in obtaining different foods.

    According to the author, all of the following factors may have been responsible for starting the human conquest of nature, except…
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    Here, the key phrase is ‘the human conquest of nature’, which is found in the second paragraph. The author lists tools, a complex brain structure and linguistic communication as three factors, but does not mention the formation of civilisation. Therefore, C is the correct answer here.

    Post Comment

    Spartacus was a Thracian who had served in the Roman army but seems to have deserted. He was captured and subsequently sold as a slave. Destined for the arena, in 73 BCE he, with a band of his fellow gladiators, broke out of a training school at Capua and took refuge on Mt. Vesuvius. Here he maintained himself as a captain of brigands, and he recruited as his lieutenants two Celts named Crixus and Oenomaus, who like himself had been gladiators. Other escaped slaves soon joined the band, and the Romans moved to eliminate the growing threat. This was the Third Servile War.

    A hastily collected force of 3,000 men under either Claudius Pulcher or Claudius Glaber endeavoured to starve out the rebels. In an audacious move, Spartacus’s forces clambered down the precipices and put the Romans to flight. Groups of hardy and desperate men now joined the rebels, and when the praetor Publius Varinius took the field against them, he found them entrenched. Before the Romans could act, the rebels slipped away, and when Varinius advanced to storm their lines they had deserted. From Campania the rebels marched into Lucania, a region that had opposed Rome in several significant conflicts, most recently the Social War. The country there was also better suited for the kind of guerrilla warfare tactics that favoured Spartacus. Varinius followed but was defeated in several engagements and narrowly escaped being taken prisoner. The insurgents reoccupied Campania, and with the defeat of Gaius Thoranius, the quaestor of Varinius, they obtained possession of nearly the whole of southern Italy. The cities of Nola and Nuceria in Campania were sacked, as were Thurii and Metapontum in Lucania. The Senate at last despatched both consuls against the rebels (72 BCE). The historian Appian suggests that at this point, Spartacus’s army numbered 70,000 men.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/event/Gladiatorial-War)

    Which of the following statements cannot be reasonably deduced from the text?
  • 1
    0

    Explanation

    Here, statements A, C and D have the best keywords but remember to read the first couple of sentences to orient yourself – this will give you the answer in this case.

     Statement A has the key phrases ‘Social War’ and ‘Third Servile War’. Finding these phrases will show you that Spartacus’ war was the Third Servile War, and Lucania had ‘recently’ opposed Rome in the Social War. It is therefore a reasonable inference that this war occurred before Spartacus.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘guerrilla warfare’, which is found in the second paragraph where the text says Lucania suited ‘the kind of guerrilla warfare tactics that suited Spartacus’, so it is a reasonable inference that this statement is true.

     Statement C has the keywords Campania and Lucania, which are both found in the second paragraph which explains that Spartacus moved from Campania to Lucania, so the statement is true.

     Statement D is addressed in the first paragraph so you could save time by reading the first couple of sentences. It is explained that Spartacus was Thracian, however he was sold as a slave after deserting from the Roman Army. Therefore, it is unlikely that his race contributed to his unglamorous entry to the Roman slave trade.

    Post Comment

    Spartacus was a Thracian who had served in the Roman army but seems to have deserted. He was captured and subsequently sold as a slave. Destined for the arena, in 73 BCE he, with a band of his fellow gladiators, broke out of a training school at Capua and took refuge on Mt. Vesuvius. Here he maintained himself as a captain of brigands, and he recruited as his lieutenants two Celts named Crixus and Oenomaus, who like himself had been gladiators. Other escaped slaves soon joined the band, and the Romans moved to eliminate the growing threat. This was the Third Servile War.

    A hastily collected force of 3,000 men under either Claudius Pulcher or Claudius Glaber endeavoured to starve out the rebels. In an audacious move, Spartacus’s forces clambered down the precipices and put the Romans to flight. Groups of hardy and desperate men now joined the rebels, and when the praetor Publius Varinius took the field against them, he found them entrenched. Before the Romans could act, the rebels slipped away, and when Varinius advanced to storm their lines they had deserted. From Campania the rebels marched into Lucania, a region that had opposed Rome in several significant conflicts, most recently the Social War. The country there was also better suited for the kind of guerrilla warfare tactics that favoured Spartacus. Varinius followed but was defeated in several engagements and narrowly escaped being taken prisoner. The insurgents reoccupied Campania, and with the defeat of Gaius Thoranius, the quaestor of Varinius, they obtained possession of nearly the whole of southern Italy. The cities of Nola and Nuceria in Campania were sacked, as were Thurii and Metapontum in Lucania. The Senate at last despatched both consuls against the rebels (72 BCE). The historian Appian suggests that at this point, Spartacus’s army numbered 70,000 men.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/event/Gladiatorial-War)

    All of the following are uncertainties according to the text, except…
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    Explanation

    Here, the question is a little tricky as betrayed by the word ‘uncertainties’ in the question stem. These may be likely facts, but any certainty in the text will make them the incorrect answer. Statement B has a numerical keyword, so may be a good place to start.

     Statement A has the key name ‘Claudius Pulcher’, which is found in the second paragraph. Here, it says that the initial Roman force was headed ‘either by Claudius Pulcher or Claudius Glaber’, therefore it is under dispute who lead the force.

     Statement B has the numerical keyword ’70,000’, found in the final sentence. Here, it says that the historian Appian suggests that the force may have been this large, but the concept of a suggestion makes this a disputed fact.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘Crixus’, which is found early on. He is listed as a certainty as one of Spartacus’ lieutenants, along with Oenomaus. Therefore, this is the correct answer.

     Statement D has the key name ‘Varinius’, and in the second paragraph it says that ‘Varinius… narrowly escaped being taken prisoner’. Therefore, this statement is not true at all.

    Post Comment

    The region of Micronesia lies between the Philippines and Hawaii and encompasses more than 2,000 islands, most of which are small and many of which are found in clusters. The region includes, from west to east, Palau (also known as Belau), Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands (which include Saipan), the Federated States of Micronesia (which include Yap, Chuuk, Pohnpei, and Kosrae), the Marshall Islands (which include Enewetak, Bikini, Rongelap, Kwajalein, and Majuro), Nauru, and Kiribati (formerly the Gilbert Islands, and which includes Banaba, formerly Ocean Island). Located for the most part north of the Equator, Micronesia (from Greek mikros ‘small’ and nēsoi ‘islands’) includes the westernmost of the Pacific Islands.

    Most of the islands that make up Micronesia are low coral atolls, although the western edge of the region includes high islands formed by volcanic activity or geological uplifting. The region’s inherent scarcity of land, potential for drought, and exposure to cyclones are constant realities confronting its inhabitants. Traditionally, the residents of atolls were especially mobile; they maintained extensive interisland exchange networks, in part because of the precarious nature of living on low islets.

    Micronesia has a complicated colonial history. Guam, the southernmost of the Mariana Islands, became the first inhabited Pacific island to be visited by a European when the Portuguese navigator and explorer Ferdinand Magellan landed there in 1521. The Marianas became the first European colony in Micronesia in 1668, when Spain took control of the island chain. In 1670 the indigenous Chamorro people rebelled, and a quarter century of sporadic warfare followed. That conflict, along with diseases introduced by Europeans, reduced the local population from about 100,000 to 4,000

    All of the following are true of the colonial history of Micronesia, except…
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    Explanation

    Here, the statement keyword is ‘colonial’ which is found in the third paragraph where the colonial history is described, as so many colonial histories are, as ‘complicated’. Statements A, B and D have the easiest keywords.

     The text says that the Marianas became the first European colony in Micronesia when Spain took control, therefore it is true that Spain established this first colony.

     Statement B has the key name ‘Magellan’, who is the Portuguese traveller acknowledged as the first European to land here. However, he is only described as a navigator and explorer, with no mention of his views on colonialism. This cannot be inferred, and is therefore the correct answer.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘diseases’, and the text says that the conflict ‘along with diseases from the Europeans’ reduced the population, therefore this statement is true.

     Statement D is agreed with directly by the text which says ‘in 1670 the indigenous Chamorro people rebelled’.

    Post Comment

    The region of Micronesia lies between the Philippines and Hawaii and encompasses more than 2,000 islands, most of which are small and many of which are found in clusters. The region includes, from west to east, Palau (also known as Belau), Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands (which include Saipan), the Federated States of Micronesia (which include Yap, Chuuk, Pohnpei, and Kosrae), the Marshall Islands (which include Enewetak, Bikini, Rongelap, Kwajalein, and Majuro), Nauru, and Kiribati (formerly the Gilbert Islands, and which includes Banaba, formerly Ocean Island). Located for the most part north of the Equator, Micronesia (from Greek mikros ‘small’ and nēsoi ‘islands’) includes the westernmost of the Pacific Islands.

    Most of the islands that make up Micronesia are low coral atolls, although the western edge of the region includes high islands formed by volcanic activity or geological uplifting. The region’s inherent scarcity of land, potential for drought, and exposure to cyclones are constant realities confronting its inhabitants. Traditionally, the residents of atolls were especially mobile; they maintained extensive interisland exchange networks, in part because of the precarious nature of living on low islets.

    Micronesia has a complicated colonial history. Guam, the southernmost of the Mariana Islands, became the first inhabited Pacific island to be visited by a European when the Portuguese navigator and explorer Ferdinand Magellan landed there in 1521. The Marianas became the first European colony in Micronesia in 1668, when Spain took control of the island chain. In 1670 the indigenous Chamorro people rebelled, and a quarter century of sporadic warfare followed. That conflict, along with diseases introduced by Europeans, reduced the local population from about 100,000 to 4,000

    All of the following statements are correct regarding the geography of Micronesia, except…
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    Explanation

    Here, the question keyword is ‘geography’ so you need to find where this geography is described in the text and think carefully, try to form a map in your head for this type of question.

     The text describes the islands from west to east, therefore because Palau is given first it must be the most westerly island.

     Kiribati is described as ‘formerly the Gilbert islands’, this plural means that it comprises more than one island.

     The final sentence of the first paragraph says that ‘Micronesia includes the westernmost of the Pacific Islands’.

     The first sentence says that Micronesia lies ‘between the Philippines and Hawaii’, therefore this statement (D) is incorrect.

    Post Comment

    Banff National Park trends northwest to southeast along the line of the Canadian Rockies between Alberta and British Columbia. Its terrain is largely rugged and mountainous, with the majority of the land consisting of high alpine peaks of the Main Ranges section of the Rockies, particularly in its western section along the Continental Divide. Most of the rest of the land is designated as subalpine or montane landscape and lies in the Front Ranges. The mountains in the region are composed of limestone, shale, and other sedimentary rocks such as dolomite and have a toothlike appearance as the result of glaciation. Many peaks rise above 10,000 feet including Mount Columbia on the park’s western border in the Ten Peaks region, which reaches 11,365 feet, and Mount Sir Douglas in the far southeast, with an elevation of 11,175 feet. Banff contains active glaciers, including a portion of the extensive Columbia Icefield to the north, and montane wetlands and meadows, such as the valleys of the Bow and Red Deer rivers. The park is also noted for its beautiful alpine lakes, particularly Lake Louise, stretching north-easterly from Mount Columbia, and, a short distance to the south, Moraine Lake.

    The region has a cool montane climate that varies considerably with location and elevation. Summers are moderately warm, with daytime highs in July and August of about 22 °C at the town of Banff and frequent afternoon thundershowers. Winters are long, snowy, and cold, with night-time lows reaching about −15 °C in January; periodic cold snaps can send temperatures much lower. Snow generally falls from late September to May, with total seasonal accumulations of some 10 feet.

    All of the following are types of mountains that appear in Banff National Park, except…
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    Explanation

    Here, the question keyword is ‘mountains’, and this is found in the text in the first paragraph where shale, limestone and dolomite are listed as types of mountains. However, graphite is not mentioned so this (D) is the correct answer.

    Post Comment

    Banff National Park trends northwest to southeast along the line of the Canadian Rockies between Alberta and British Columbia. Its terrain is largely rugged and mountainous, with the majority of the land consisting of high alpine peaks of the Main Ranges section of the Rockies, particularly in its western section along the Continental Divide. Most of the rest of the land is designated as subalpine or montane landscape and lies in the Front Ranges. The mountains in the region are composed of limestone, shale, and other sedimentary rocks such as dolomite and have a toothlike appearance as the result of glaciation. Many peaks rise above 10,000 feet including Mount Columbia on the park’s western border in the Ten Peaks region, which reaches 11,365 feet, and Mount Sir Douglas in the far southeast, with an elevation of 11,175 feet. Banff contains active glaciers, including a portion of the extensive Columbia Icefield to the north, and montane wetlands and meadows, such as the valleys of the Bow and Red Deer rivers. The park is also noted for its beautiful alpine lakes, particularly Lake Louise, stretching north-easterly from Mount Columbia, and, a short distance to the south, Moraine Lake.

    The region has a cool montane climate that varies considerably with location and elevation. Summers are moderately warm, with daytime highs in July and August of about 22 °C at the town of Banff and frequent afternoon thundershowers. Winters are long, snowy, and cold, with night-time lows reaching about −15 °C in January; periodic cold snaps can send temperatures much lower. Snow generally falls from late September to May, with total seasonal accumulations of some 10 feet.

    All of the following are geographical features which can be found in Banff, except…
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    Explanation

    Here, the statement keyword is geographical features. However, this is not found in isolation in the text so you may wish to search for each word quickly to identify which one is not mentioned.

     Glaciers are found mentioned near the end of the first paragraph, which says ‘Banff contains active glaciers’, confirming statement A.

     Wetlands is found further into the sentence, which says ‘montane wetlands’ are found in Banff.

     Volcanoes are not mentioned in the text and are therefore not found in Banff. This (C) is the correct answer.

     Icefields are found in the same sentence as glaciers and wetlands, the text confirms that the ‘extensive Columbia Icefield’ is found in Banff.

    Post Comment

    Banff National Park trends northwest to southeast along the line of the Canadian Rockies between Alberta and British Columbia. Its terrain is largely rugged and mountainous, with the majority of the land consisting of high alpine peaks of the Main Ranges section of the Rockies, particularly in its western section along the Continental Divide. Most of the rest of the land is designated as subalpine or montane landscape and lies in the Front Ranges. The mountains in the region are composed of limestone, shale, and other sedimentary rocks such as dolomite and have a toothlike appearance as the result of glaciation. Many peaks rise above 10,000 feet including Mount Columbia on the park’s western border in the Ten Peaks region, which reaches 11,365 feet, and Mount Sir Douglas in the far southeast, with an elevation of 11,175 feet. Banff contains active glaciers, including a portion of the extensive Columbia Icefield to the north, and montane wetlands and meadows, such as the valleys of the Bow and Red Deer rivers. The park is also noted for its beautiful alpine lakes, particularly Lake Louise, stretching north-easterly from Mount Columbia, and, a short distance to the south, Moraine Lake.

    The region has a cool montane climate that varies considerably with location and elevation. Summers are moderately warm, with daytime highs in July and August of about 22 °C at the town of Banff and frequent afternoon thundershowers. Winters are long, snowy, and cold, with night-time lows reaching about −15 °C in January; periodic cold snaps can send temperatures much lower. Snow generally falls from late September to May, with total seasonal accumulations of some 10 feet.

    Which of the following statements is not true, according to the passage?
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    Explanation

    Here, statement B has a numerical keyword so should be quick to find. You may want to start with this.

     Statement A has the keyword ‘Mount Columbia’, mentioned in the text in the first paragraph in the middle and at the end. At the end of the paragraph, the text says that Lake Louise ‘stretches north-easterly from Mount Columbia’, therefore it is true that Mount Columbia is south-westerly to Lake Louise.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘-15oC’, found in the text in the second paragraph which says temperatures may fall this low in January. However, it also says ‘periodic cold snaps can send temperatures much lower’, so this statement is false and the correct answer.

     Statement C has the keywords Mount Columbia and Mount Sir Douglas, which are found together in the text in the middle of the first paragraph. Here, it gives the elevation of Columbia as 11,365 feet but the elevation of Sir Douglas as 11,175 feet. Therefore, Mount Columbia is taller and this statement is true.

     Statement D has the keyword ‘mountainous’, and in the first paragraph the text says ‘the majority of the land consists of high alpine peaks’, therefore it is mountainous.

    Post Comment

    Laurence Olivier, in full Laurence Kerr Olivier, was a towering figure of the British stage and screen, acclaimed in his lifetime as the greatest English-speaking actor of the 20th century. He was the first member of his profession to be elevated to a life peerage.

    The son of an Anglican minister, Olivier attended All Saints Choir School, where at age nine he made his theatrical debut as Brutus in an abridgement of Shakespeare’s Julius Caesar. Five years later he played the female lead in The Taming of the Shrew at Oxford’s St. Edward’s School, repeating this performance at the Stratford Shakespeare Festival. These early stage appearances did not go unnoticed by the theatrical notables of the era, who encouraged Olivier to consider acting as a profession. At first, he dismissed the notion, hoping to follow the example of his older brother by managing an Indian rubber plantation; but his father, who had heretofore been ambivalent on the subject of acting, all but demanded that young Laurence embark upon a stage career.

    Olivier enrolled at the Central School of Dramatic Art in 1924, then began his professional career with the Birmingham Repertory Theatre Company. In 1929 he made his first significant West End appearance, playing the title role in a staging of P.C. Wren’s Beau Geste. Also, that year he made his Broadway debut in Murder on the Second Floor. Having acted in British films from 1930, he was briefly signed by Hollywood’s RKO Radio Pictures in 1931, but he failed to make much of an impression at this early date. What could have been his first Hollywood break in Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer’s Queen Christina (1933) was scuttled when star Greta Garbo vetoed Olivier as her leading man in favour of her former lover John Gilbert.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/biography/Laurence-Olivier)

    All of the following statements are true of Olivier’s early career, except…
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    Explanation

    Here, you should orient yourself in the part of the text explaining Olivier’s early career. This is found at the beginning of the second paragraph.

     Immediately, the first sentence you read about his early career gives you the correct answer if you look hard enough, here is the quote:

    ‘where at age nine he made his theatrical debut as Brutus in an abridgement of Shakespeare’s Julius Caesar’

    The debut was in Julius Caesar, not The Taming of the Shrew, so A is not true and the correct answer.

     He played Brutus in the debut, not the eponymous character Julius Caesar, so C is true.

     He was aged nine, not 10, so statement D is true.

     The next sentence reveals that he played a female part in the Taming of the Shrew, therefore statement B is true.

    Post Comment

    Laurence Olivier, in full Laurence Kerr Olivier, was a towering figure of the British stage and screen, acclaimed in his lifetime as the greatest English-speaking actor of the 20th century. He was the first member of his profession to be elevated to a life peerage.

    The son of an Anglican minister, Olivier attended All Saints Choir School, where at age nine he made his theatrical debut as Brutus in an abridgement of Shakespeare’s Julius Caesar. Five years later he played the female lead in The Taming of the Shrew at Oxford’s St. Edward’s School, repeating this performance at the Stratford Shakespeare Festival. These early stage appearances did not go unnoticed by the theatrical notables of the era, who encouraged Olivier to consider acting as a profession. At first, he dismissed the notion, hoping to follow the example of his older brother by managing an Indian rubber plantation; but his father, who had heretofore been ambivalent on the subject of acting, all but demanded that young Laurence embark upon a stage career.

    Olivier enrolled at the Central School of Dramatic Art in 1924, then began his professional career with the Birmingham Repertory Theatre Company. In 1929 he made his first significant West End appearance, playing the title role in a staging of P.C. Wren’s Beau Geste. Also, that year he made his Broadway debut in Murder on the Second Floor. Having acted in British films from 1930, he was briefly signed by Hollywood’s RKO Radio Pictures in 1931, but he failed to make much of an impression at this early date. What could have been his first Hollywood break in Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer’s Queen Christina (1933) was scuttled when star Greta Garbo vetoed Olivier as her leading man in favour of her former lover John Gilbert.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/biography/Laurence-Olivier)

    Which of the following statements is false, according to the passage?
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    Explanation

    Here, statements A and B have the best keywords so you may want to start with these.

     Statement A has the keyword ‘Metro-Goldwyn-Meyer’, which is found in the final paragraph which confirms Queen Christina was produced by this company.

     Statement B has the key phrase ‘first West End performance’, found in second paragraph which says he played the ‘title role in… Beau Geste’, confirming the statement as true.

     Statement C has the key phrase ‘All Saints Choir School’, found in the second paragraph which directly agrees that Olivier attended this school.

     Statement D has the key phrase ‘Indian rubber plantation’, which is found in the second paragraph. However, it was in fact his older brother which managed the rubber plantation, a younger sibling is not discussed.

    Post Comment
    Reece Langton-smith Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 26 Aug 2021 15:19:30

    Statement B is false as the text says he made his first SIGNIFICANT west end appearance which implies he has had other less significant roles in the past on the west end

    Dawes General Allotment Act, also called Dawes Severalty Act, (February 8, 1887), was a U.S. law providing for the distribution of Indian reservation land among individual Native Americans, with the aim of creating responsible farmers in the white man’s image. It was sponsored in several sessions of Congress by Sen. Henry L. Dawes of Massachusetts and finally was enacted in February 1887. Under its terms, the president determined the suitability of the recipients and issued the grants, usually by a formula of 160 acres (65 hectares) to each head of household and 80 acres (32 hectares) to each unmarried adult, with the stipulation that no grantee could alienate his land for 25 years. The Native Americans who thus received land became U.S. citizens, subject to federal, state, and local laws. The original supporters of the act were genuinely interested in the welfare of the Native Americans, but there were not enough votes in Congress to pass it until it was amended to provide that any land remaining after the allotment to the Native Americans would be available for public sale. The combined influence of friends of the Native Americans and land speculators assured passage of the act.

     Under the Dawes Act, Native American life deteriorated in a manner not anticipated by its sponsors. The social structure of the tribe was weakened; many nomadic Native Americans were unable to adjust to an agricultural existence; others were swindled out of their property; and life on the reservation came to be characterized by disease, filth, poverty, and despondency. The act also provided that any “surplus” land be made available to whites, who by 1932 had acquired two-thirds of the 138,000,000 acres Native Americans had held in 1887.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/topic/Dawes-General-Allotment-Act)

    All of the following statements describe consequences of the Dawes Act, except…
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    Explanation

    Here, statements C and D probably have the best keywords, ‘surplus’ and ‘agricultural’ respectively so you could start here.

     Statement A has the key phrase ‘social structure’, which is found in the second paragraph where the text says ‘social structure was weakened’, confirming the statement.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘stolen’, which is synonymous with the word ‘swindled’ found in the second paragraph which says that Native Americans were ‘swindled out of their property’.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘surplus’ and is confirmed by the final sentence which says surplus land was made available to white settlers.

     Statement D has the keyword ‘agricultural’, however in the second paragraph it says that ‘many’ Native Americans ‘struggled’ to adapt, therefore this is false and the correct answer.

    Post Comment

    Dawes General Allotment Act, also called Dawes Severalty Act, (February 8, 1887), was a U.S. law providing for the distribution of Indian reservation land among individual Native Americans, with the aim of creating responsible farmers in the white man’s image. It was sponsored in several sessions of Congress by Sen. Henry L. Dawes of Massachusetts and finally was enacted in February 1887. Under its terms, the president determined the suitability of the recipients and issued the grants, usually by a formula of 160 acres (65 hectares) to each head of household and 80 acres (32 hectares) to each unmarried adult, with the stipulation that no grantee could alienate his land for 25 years. The Native Americans who thus received land became U.S. citizens, subject to federal, state, and local laws. The original supporters of the act were genuinely interested in the welfare of the Native Americans, but there were not enough votes in Congress to pass it until it was amended to provide that any land remaining after the allotment to the Native Americans would be available for public sale. The combined influence of friends of the Native Americans and land speculators assured passage of the act.

    Under the Dawes Act, Native American life deteriorated in a manner not anticipated by its sponsors. The social structure of the tribe was weakened; many nomadic Native Americans were unable to adjust to an agricultural existence; others were swindled out of their property; and life on the reservation came to be characterized by disease, filth, poverty, and despondency. The act also provided that any “surplus” land be made available to whites, who by 1932 had acquired two-thirds of the 138,000,000 acres Native Americans had held in 1887.

    (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/topic/Dawes-General-Allotment-Act)

    Which of the following statements is untrue according to the passage?
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    Explanation

    Here, statement A has a good numerical value which can be located in the text easily. You may therefore want to simply start at the beginning for this question.

     Statement A has the keyword ’80 acres’, and in the first paragraph we confirm that an unmarried person ‘could expect to receive… 80 acres’.

     Statement B has the key phrase ‘US Citizenship’, and in the first paragraph the text confirms that ‘Native Americans who thus received land became US Citizens…’. Therefore, they did become citizens and this statement is untrue, so the correct answer.

     Statement C has the key phrase ‘help Native Americans’, which really should prompt you to search for any keywords relating to Native American welfare, which is found in the first paragraph. Here, it says ‘the original supporters… were genuinely interested in the welfare of Native Americans’.

    Statement D has the keyword ‘farmers’, which is found in the second sentence. Here, it says that the act was ‘with the aim of creating responsible farmers in the white man’s image’, therefore statement D is true.

    Post Comment

    Joseph Haydn was an Austrian composer who was one of the most important figures in the development of the Classical style in music during the 18th century.

    Haydn was the second son of humble parents. His father was a wheelwright, his mother, before her marriage, a cook for the lords of the village. Haydn early revealed unusual musical gifts, and a cousin who was a school principal and choirmaster in the nearby city of Hainburg offered to take him into his home and train him. Haydn, not yet six years old, left home, never to return to the parental cottage except for rare brief visits.

    The young Haydn sang in the church choir, learned to play various instruments, and obtained a good basic knowledge of music. But his life changed decisively when he was eight years old. The musical director of St. Stephen’s Cathedral in Vienna had observed the boy on a visit to Hainburg and invited him to serve as chorister at the Austrian capital’s most important church. Haydn’s parents accepted the offer, and thus in 1740 Haydn moved to Vienna. He stayed at the choir school for nine years, acquiring an enormous practical knowledge of music by constant performances but, to his disappointment, received little instruction in music theory. However, when his voice changed, he was expelled from both the cathedral choir and the choir school.

    With no money and few possessions, Haydn at 17 was left to his own devices. He found refuge for a while in the garret of a fellow musician and supported himself “miserably” with odd musical jobs. A fortunate chance brought him to the attention of the Italian composer and singing teacher Nicola Porpora, who accepted him as accompanist for voice lessons and corrected Haydn’s compositions.

    All of the following are true of Haydn’s parents, except…
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    Explanation

    Here, the question keyword is ‘Haydn’s parents’, so locate this in the text in the second paragraph. A couple of sentences will give you all the information you need to answer this.

    The first two sentences of the second paragraph tell us that ‘his father was a wheelwright’ (B), his mother was a cook ‘before her marriage’ (A), and that Haydn was a second son (D). From this alone, we could use process of elimination to assume that C is the correct answer. For confirmation, at the end of the paragraph it says ‘Haydn… left home, never to return except for brief parental visits’, which confirms he actually did see his parents after age six.

    Post Comment

    Joseph Haydn was an Austrian composer who was one of the most important figures in the development of the Classical style in music during the 18th century.

    Haydn was the second son of humble parents. His father was a wheelwright, his mother, before her marriage, a cook for the lords of the village. Haydn early revealed unusual musical gifts, and a cousin who was a school principal and choirmaster in the nearby city of Hainburg offered to take him into his home and train him. Haydn, not yet six years old, left home, never to return to the parental cottage except for rare brief visits.

    The young Haydn sang in the church choir, learned to play various instruments, and obtained a good basic knowledge of music. But his life changed decisively when he was eight years old. The musical director of St. Stephen’s Cathedral in Vienna had observed the boy on a visit to Hainburg and invited him to serve as chorister at the Austrian capital’s most important church. Haydn’s parents accepted the offer, and thus in 1740 Haydn moved to Vienna. He stayed at the choir school for nine years, acquiring an enormous practical knowledge of music by constant performances but, to his disappointment, received little instruction in music theory. However, when his voice changed, he was expelled from both the cathedral choir and the choir school.

    With no money and few possessions, Haydn at 17 was left to his own devices. He found refuge for a while in the garret of a fellow musician and supported himself “miserably” with odd musical jobs. A fortunate chance brought him to the attention of the Italian composer and singing teacher Nicola Porpora, who accepted him as accompanist for voice lessons and corrected Haydn’s compositions.

    Which of the following statements cannot be reasonably deduced from the passage?
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    Explanation

    Here, statements A and C have good keywords whereas statement D is an extreme statement, so could be skipped.

     Statement A has the keyword ‘St Stephen’s Cathedral’, and it requires some degree of lateral thinking to understand that this statement is true. We see that the musical director of St Stephen’s Cathedral invited Haydn to serve as chorister at ‘the Austrian Capital’s most important Church’. Because the musical director of St Stephen’s invited him, it is reasonable to assume that this is where he was invited, and the description of the Austrian Capital’s most important church refers to St Stephen’s.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘expelled’, found at the end of the third paragraph. The text heavily implies that this was because his voice had changed, so this statement is a reasonable inference.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘Nicola Porpora’, which is found in the final paragraph. However, the text describes their meeting as ‘fortunate chance’, so this statement is true.

     Statement D has the key phrase ‘St Stephen’s Cathedral’ once again, and the text actually says that Haydn ‘received little instruction (synonymous with tuition in this case)’, so this extreme statement goes too far to say none.

    Post Comment
    Ameya Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 18 Jul 2021 11:29:09

    The right answer has been marked as wrong

    z Medicmind Tutor

    Thu, 16 Sep 2021 07:48:34

    the correct answer is C

    Ivan the Terrible was a grand prince of Moscow and the first to be proclaimed tsar of Russia (from 1547). His reign saw the completion of the construction of a centrally administered Russian state and the creation of an empire that included non-Slav states. Ivan engaged in prolonged and largely unsuccessful wars against Sweden and Poland, and, in seeking to impose military discipline and a centralized administration, he instituted a reign of terror against the hereditary nobility.

    Ivan was the son of Grand Prince Vasily III of Moscow and his second wife, Yelena Glinskaya. He was to become the penultimate representative of the Rurik dynasty. On December 4, 1533, immediately after his father’s death, the three-year-old Ivan was proclaimed grand prince of Moscow. His mother ruled in Ivan’s name until her death (allegedly by poison) in 1538. The deaths of both of Ivan’s parents served to reanimate the struggles of various factions of nobles for control of the person of the young prince and for power. The years 1538–47 were thus a period of murderous strife among the clans of the warrior caste commonly termed “boyars.” Their continual struggles for the reins of government to the detriment of the realm made a profound impression on Ivan and imbued him with a lifelong dislike of the boyars.

    All of the following are true of Ivan the Terrible, except…
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    Explanation

    Here, the best keywords are in statements A and D with a name and a country respectively. You may want to assess these statements first.

     Statement A has the keyword Vasily III, found at the beginning of the second paragraph and confirmed to be Ivan’s father.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘boyars’, and the last sentence confirms that the boyars effect of ‘the detriment of the realm… imbued him with a lifelong dislike of the boyars’.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘young’, and ‘grand prince of Moscow’. In the text, we see that Ivan gained this title aged three, which is indeed very young.

     Statement D has the keyword ‘Poland’, and in the first paragraph it says that Ivan engaged in a ‘largely unsuccessful’ war against Poland, therefore this statement is false.

    Post Comment

    Collectivization was policy adopted by the Soviet government, pursued most intensively between 1929 and 1933, to transform traditional agriculture in the Soviet Union and to reduce the economic power of the kulaks (prosperous peasants). Under collectivization the peasantry was forced to give up their individual farms and join large collective farms (kolkhozy). The process was ultimately undertaken in conjunction with the campaign to industrialize the Soviet Union rapidly. But before the drive began, long and bitter debates over the nature and pace of collectivization went on among the Soviet leaders—especially between Joseph Stalin and Leon Trotsky in 1925–27 and between Stalin and Nikolay Bukharin in 1927–29.

    Some Soviet leaders considered collective farms a socialist form of land tenure and therefore desirable; but they advocated a gradual transition to them in order to avoid disrupting the agricultural productivity necessary to stimulate industrial growth. Other leaders favoured rapid industrialization and, consequently, wanted immediate, forced collectivization; they argued not only that the large kolkhozy could use heavy machinery more efficiently and produce larger crops than could numerous small, individual farms but that they could be controlled more effectively by the state. As a result, they could be forced to sell a large proportion of their output to the state at low government prices, thereby enabling the state to acquire the capital necessary for the development of heavy industry.

    Which of the following statements does not describe an aspect of collectivisation?
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    Explanation

    Here, statement B probably has the best keyword, ‘industrialisation’, so you could start here.

     Statement A has the key phrase ‘large, collective farms’, which is confirmed in the text in the first paragraph where these farms are defined as ‘kolkhozy’.

     Statement B has the keyword ‘industrialisation’, which is found in the second paragraph. Repeatedly, the text says that both groups at odds with one another were ultimately trying to industrialise, therefore it is a fair inference that this was a major aspect of collectivisation.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘food’, which is interestingly not mentioned at all in an article about farms. Therefore, we cannot assume that this was an aspect of collectivisation.

     Statement D has the keyword ‘control’ and ‘government’, and the final paragraph shows that some in the government thought large farms could be more effectively controlled, so this was an aspect.

    Post Comment

    Collectivization was policy adopted by the Soviet government, pursued most intensively between 1929 and 1933, to transform traditional agriculture in the Soviet Union and to reduce the economic power of the kulaks (prosperous peasants). Under collectivization the peasantry was forced to give up their individual farms and join large collective farms (kolkhozy). The process was ultimately undertaken in conjunction with the campaign to industrialize the Soviet Union rapidly. But before the drive began, long and bitter debates over the nature and pace of collectivization went on among the Soviet leaders—especially between Joseph Stalin and Leon Trotsky in 1925–27 and between Stalin and Nikolay Bukharin in 1927–29.

    Some Soviet leaders considered collective farms a socialist form of land tenure and therefore desirable; but they advocated a gradual transition to them in order to avoid disrupting the agricultural productivity necessary to stimulate industrial growth. Other leaders favoured rapid industrialization and, consequently, wanted immediate, forced collectivization; they argued not only that the large kolkhozy could use heavy machinery more efficiently and produce larger crops than could numerous small, individual farms but that they could be controlled more effectively by the state. As a result, they could be forced to sell a large proportion of their output to the state at low government prices, thereby enabling the state to acquire the capital necessary for the development of heavy industry.

    Which of the following statements cannot be deduced from the passage?
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    Explanation

    Here, statement B has the best keywords of the 2 names ‘Trotsky and Bukharin’ which are found at the end of the first paragraph.

     Statement A has the keyword ‘leaders’, and at the end of the first paragraph it says that ‘bitter debates’ occurred between these leaders over collectivisation. The second paragraph reveals disputes over implementation, so this statement is true.

     Statement B has the key names ‘Trotsky’ and ‘Bukharin’. Although it is revealed at the end of the first paragraph that both disagreed with Stalin, it does not categorically say that they agreed with one another. Therefore, this cannot be deduced, and this statement is the correct answer.

     Statement C has the keyword ‘rapid industrialisation’, and in the first paragraph we see that the campaign ‘was undertaken in conjunction with the campaign to industrialise… rapidly’. Therefore, this can be inferred.

     Statement D has the key phrase ‘heavy machinery’, which is found in the second paragraph and confirmed by the quote ‘they argued not only that the large kolkhozy could use heavy machinery more efficiently’.

    Post Comment

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