This section is Section 1 of 3.

Speed as well as accuracy is important in this section. Work quickly, or you might not finish the paper. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only marks for correct answers, so you should attempt all 50 questions. Each question is worth one mark.

You must complete the answers within the time limit. Calculators are NOT permitted.

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Note – if press “End Exam” you can access full worked solutions for all past paper questions

Sometimes poverty is defined in relation to average income. For example, people may be said to be poor if their income is less than 60 per cent of the average income for the This is not a legitimate definition, because it is a measure of inequality rather than poverty. This is obvious if we consider the consequences of using the definition. It means that a huge pay rise for middle managers automatically throws some people into poverty, even though their income has not changed. On the other hand, the definition implies that in a society where almost everyone is starving, no one is poor.

1. Which of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    The argument focuses on discrediting the definition of poverty in relation to average income. The argument goes on to talk about how this definition is more a measure of inequality, backing up the authors point with evidence of how huge pay rises effect those whose income hasn’t changed, and causes them to be defined as impoverish despite not having their income changed. Looking at the answer option E is irrelevant, option B is not a valid conclusion, and option D is not a conclusion of the paragraph, more of a point that was made to help illustrate the conclusion. This leaves us with options A and C. While both options are valid conclusions, statement A acts to support option C when using the therefore test. Leading us to the correct answer of C.

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    A child’s bus fare is cheaper than the adult fare but is more than half the adult fare. The total cost of a single journey for an adult and two children is £1.20. Adult fares are all multiples of 10 p.

    2. What is the adult fare?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    A child’s bus fare is cheaper than the adult fare but is more than half the adult fare: 0.5a<c<a. The total cost of a single journey for an adult and two children is £1.20: a+2c=1.20. We can substitute the values given from A-E into both equations until we get an answer that satisfies both equations. E.g for answer A we substitute ‘a’ with 0.30: 2c=1.20-0.30=0.90, so c=0.45, which does not satisfy 0.15<c<0.30, therefore A is not the correct answer. Only answer C satisfies both equations, 2c=1.20-0.50=0.70, so c=0.35, which satisfies 0.25<c<0.50, so is the answer.

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    Over the past ten years, there has been a four-fold increase in the number of people killed in road accidents who are found to have illegal drugs in their bodies. The rate of increase is much greater than the corresponding rate for those people killed in accidents who were found with alcohol in their blood. This shows that the campaign against drink-driving has succeeded. Consequently, the Government ought now to concentrate on targeting those people who drive whilst under the influence of illegal drugs.

    3. Which of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the argument above?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Passage is discussing how number of drug-related road deaths have increase more than drink-driving deaths in the past few years. The conclusion here is that the campaigns for drink-driving have been successful and thus it is time to begin campaigns against drug related driving

    The answer here is D because it points out that the reasoning is flawed. Because we have no information on how much drink driving deaths would have increased without campaigns, we cannot say that drug driving has increased more because of the campaigns being successful.

    B&E are completely irrelevant

    Both A and C would weaken the argument because they refer to the chance that a campaign against driving on drugs may not be as successful as one that is against drunk driving so they can be seen as counterarguments rather than flaws

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    Socialist politicians are often taunted by their opponents for leading lifestyles similar to those of their capitalist counterparts. The theme of the taunts runs like this; ‘You object on socialist principles to gross inequalities in the distribution of wealth; yet you enjoy a higher personal standard of living than the majority of the population. Therefore you are not really a socialist’. But the jibe can easily be answered, for there is no hypocrisy in arguing, even from a privileged position, for a fairer and more equal society.

    4. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be reliably drawn from the passage as a whole?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    This passage talks about the issues surrounding socialist politicians, and the common criticism, how can they be for socialism if they themselves are wealthy. Although the article speaks around this criticism, it ultimately is finalised by saying that although this argument can be made, it is something that can be answered. Therefore, you need to identify that this argument is for socialist politicians, and how they can be both socialist and wealthy. This makes answer options A and E incorrect conclusions. In addition to this, we can say that answer option D is also incorrect as it is an irrelevant point to the arguments raised in the passage. Moreover, answer C is not covered or mentioned in the text, making it an unreliable conclusion to be drawn from the passage. This means that answer option B is the only plausible conclusion that can be drawn from the passage.

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    The Executive of the Students’ Union has recently carried out a survey to identify dangerous areas on campus. The survey led to the recommendation and implementation of measures such as improved lighting in suspect areas. Such reforms can only help to reduce the number of attacks on campus.

    However, the University lake and its surrounding area was not included in the survey as, despite being considered part of the campus, it actually belongs to the City Council. This means the University has no direct influence over safety standards in the area. It should therefore definitely be avoided by lone students at night.

    5. Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of this argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    This passage is discussing how the University has implemented new improved safety features on areas of the campus. it also mentions that the council Is an ownership of the Lake thus the University cannot use these safety features in the Lake.

    From this we can conclude that the Lake would be a dangerous place and should be avoided by students who are alone at night.

    D is the only answer which correctly illustrates a flaw because the statement is assuming that only thing making the area safer is the new safety measures and is ignoring the possibility that the council could have included their own safety features

    Both C and E are not relevant. They do not discuss whether the area will be dangerous without the implementation of safety features

    B would make the argument stronger because if the council believes that the Lake is part of the university’s campus it can be inferred that they have not implemented any safety features as it’s not their own so it reinforces that it may be dangerous

    A is not an assumption because even if students look after their own safety the idea of walking alone around the Lake at night maybe something they avoid anyways – we can possibly see this as a preventative measure by students

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    Steven has a customised motorcycle that he is very proud of and shows regularly in It is very important to him that his presentation is perfect and he likes to stop in front of the judges with both his tyre valves in the same position. The front tyre is smaller than the rear to aid its handling. The circumference of the front wheel is 2m and the circumference of the rear wheel is 2.5m.

    Steven starts with both valves in the same position at the bottom of each wheel.

    6. How far must he drive before the valves line up again at the bottom of each wheel?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Find the lowest common multiple of 2 and 2.5. This is 10 which is D.

    Post Comment

    I have so many four digit code numbers to remember that I cannot keep them all in my The banks say you should not write down your Personal Identification Numbers (PINs) for cash and credit cards and keep them in a wallet with the cards. So I can find out what the numbers are, I have devised a code which should be complicated enough to confuse any thief who steals my wallet. I code all the numbers using 1=A, 2=B up to 9=I, 0=J. Then I write the coded numbers down backwards so 1234 is written DCBA. Finally at the end of each coded number I add an extra letter between A and J to say what that particular code is of: C is for credit card; F is for phone card; B is for bicycle lock combination; E is for my Eastern Bank card and D is for my Denton Building Society card.

    My list looks as follows:

    A

    D G E F
    C J D B

    E

    B

    G F A C
    G J A C

    D

    D

    F G C

    B

    7. What is my bicycle lock combination?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    We need to work backwards, starting with the final step used to make the code. Because at the end of each coded number he adds an extra letter, and ‘B’ is for bicycle, the 5th code in the list is for bicycle as it ends in ‘B’. We then need to write the remaining for letters of the code in the reverse order, so ‘DFGC’ would become ‘CGFD’. We then need to find the number each letter represents by finding their positions in the alphabet: C=3, G=7, F=6, D=4. So the code would be 3764, which is answer E.

    Post Comment
    sal Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 01 Oct 2023 10:09:48

    Letters written in 5th code is wrong? Like DFGC are not in the 5th code!

    The drawing shows a sculpture as seen from above.

    8. Which of these could not be a view from one of the sides?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    As in the bird’s eye view diagram the border around the smaller central square is continuous around the entire of the small square, it must be that each side of the sculpture is level when viewed on from any of the sides. Hence, A could not be a view from the side because a sqaure chunk has been removed. The remaining options are all possible.

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    Some of the great sea-mammals, such as the sperm whale, have brains many times larger than ours. It is a fact of evolution that organs do not grow or remain large unless they are used; if they are not used they shrink or even disappear. It must be concluded therefore that the sperm whale makes intelligent use of the vast brain it possesses, perhaps at thought levels well beyond our understanding.

    9. Which of the following would, if true, weaken the argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Evolution is discussed – organs do not develop to be large unless they are used

    Because of this the passage describes how whale brains are much larger than humans thus sperm wales have greater intelligence than us

    A and B are irrelevant – Language does not equal intelligence, another thing to consider is that if intelligence is possible without large brains that doesn’t mean that large brains don’t give intelligence

    D and E strengthen the argument – D is saying that large brains are not related to the size of sperm whales by saying large brains are not related to large size of whales which means they could be used for intelligence

    E reinforces that their intelligence could be something we cannot understand

    C is correct answer – if brains may be used for something else then their size doesn’t have to mean they are used for intelligence thus weakening this argument

    Post Comment

    Mrs Jackson said that, if Mrs List were promoted, she would resign and we definitely do not want to lose Mrs Jackson. However, we are not going to promote Mrs List: we are going to offer the promotion to Mr Therefore Mrs Jackson will not resign.

    10. Which of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    The argument is that they are going to offer the promotion to Mr Wade in order to prevent Mrs Jackson resigning, because Mrs Jackson would resign if the promotion was given to Mrs List. For the argument to be valid, it must be that Mrs Jackson would not resign if the promotion was given to anyone but Mrs List, however this may not be the case. Mrs Jackson may choose to resign even if Mr Wade is promoted, due to other reasons, which is highlighted by C and is therefore the flaw.

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    There is much evidence to suggest that cannabis has therapeutic uses for people suffering from conditions such as multiple Given this, the prescription of cannabis should be made legal. If doctors were legally allowed to prescribe cannabis, multiple sclerosis sufferers and others might be spared much pain. Moreover, if cannabis could be legally prescribed, it would be possible to conduct large-scale surveys to establish whether cannabis really is of benefit in such cases.

    11. Which of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    The positive nature of this argument clearly shows that the author is pro-cannabis legalisation, and details multiple reasons as to why. This therefore automatically rules out negative conclusions that are opposing all the content of the argument, answer option C. In addition to this, answer option A is not covered, or alluded to in the text, and can therefore also be ruled out. While answer options B and E are points made in the text, neither can be the accurate conclusion as both should be followed by “therefore, *the conclusion*” Using the therefore technique for the three plausible options (B, D and E), you can accurately conclude the answer is D.

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    Pierre and Marc are waiters. In one particular month, Pierre worked 30 sessions at the normal rate and 10 sessions at the overtime rate. Marc worked 20 sessions at the normal rate and 5 sessions at the overtime rate. At the end of this month, Pierre earned 700 Marc earned 425 euros.

    12. What is the overtime rate per session?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    If we let the pay for a session at the overtime rate=V and the pay for a session at the normal rate=N, we can form a pair of simultaneous equations, one for each of Pierre’s and Mark’s total pay: 30N+10V=700 and 20N+5V=425. We can solve these by doubling the second equation (representing Mark’s pay), so it becomes 40N+10V=850, and then subtract the equation representing Pierre’s pay from this: (40N+10V=850)-(30N+10V=700)–>10N=150–>N=15=the normal rate per session. Substitute this value into any of the equations to find a value for V, the overtime rate per session, for example: (30×15)+10V=700–>450+10V=700–>10V=250–>V=25.

    Post Comment

    The chart below shows the distribution of results this season for the Arlsea Strikers hockey They have played 24 matches to date and lost none.

    13. How many matches have they won?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    Matches they have won=home wins+away wins, which together have an angle of 270 degrees in the pie chart, which is 3/4 of the total pie chart. So the total number of wins is given by: 24×3/4=18.

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    The cut out below was folded together to make a cube.

    14. Which of the following cubes was formed from this cut-out?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    If we rotate the net shown by 180 degrees, fold it keeping the face with the cross facing towards us, and then tilt the cube 45 degrees clockwise so the face with the cross is facing slightly to the left, the cube would look the same as in E, which is the answer.

    Post Comment

    Random drug-testing of prisoners was introduced in 1995 in order to solve the many problems associated with prisoners taking drugs. Since cannabis can be detected in the body up to a month after having been smoked, prisoners are tempted to switch to heroin, which stays in the system for only 48 As a result, since drug-testing was introduced, cannabis use has declined by a fifth whereas heroin use has doubled. Heroin is not only a much more damaging drug than cannabis, but it is also extremely addictive. There is evidence that heroin addiction encourages prisoners to intimidate others in order to pay for the drug.

    15. Which one of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    The passages tone overall provides you with a negative view of random drug-testing of prisoners, despite it being introduced to solve the drug problems within prisons. The passage talks about how although cannabis use has reduced, it has lead to a much more damaging and dangerous drug, heroin, to be used more. Based on this information provided we can rule out answer option B, as it is incorrect based on evidence in the text. While answer options A and E are not detailed in the text enough to be able to draw these conclusions. This leaves you with options C and D. While option C and D are very similar, option C states the issue cannot be solved by random drug-testing, as opposed to option D that states it has not solved the problem. When looking at this level of detail it is important to think about what the text really is telling you. It hasn’t stated that it can not ever solve the drug-problem, but that it has not solved the problem. Therefore, we would can conclude that option D is the correct answer.

    Post Comment

    It is not always clear whether a doctor should tell the truth to a patient or not. On the one hand, patients have a right to know what is the matter with them and what the future holds, so that they can make their own informed decisions, however upsetting the truth may be. It is a simple issue of human rights. But on the other hand, a patient’s health may sometimes be better served by not knowing a frightening truth. For instance, a doctor may believe that a patient’s medical condition will actually worsen if they realise how serious it Therefore, there are cases in which doctors have no choice: they must decide in favour of deceiving the patient.

    16. Which of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    It can be concluded that doctors must deceive their patients in some medical scenarios. The reasons given to support this notion is that patients have the right to know the truth however certain scenarios it may be better to hide the truth to protect the patient’s health.

    D has not been stated (remember assumptions are not stated) and it is the only reasoning that supports the conclusion as we are assuming doctor’s greater responsibility is the patient’s well-being rather than the truth

    E is contradictory to D and E is supporting the fact we should tell the truth as that is a human right

    C is irrelevant as it is related to the patient feeling upset and not about their health worsening upon knowing the truth

    B is irrelevant as it refers to fear rather than health and knowing the truth

    A is also irrelevant as a patient’s view of the doctor’s responsibility does not matter in this case

    Post Comment

    Birds of the tit family are very fond of tearing paper – wallpaper, newspaper, notices and bank notes included. They make no use of the paper they have torn. We might explain this puzzling behaviour by noting that the technique that they use for tearing paper is identical to their technique for stripping tree bark to search for insects to eat. This indicates that tits that tear paper are searching for food.

    17. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Passage conclusion is tits that tear paper are searching for food, this is based off the argument that they use a similar method to tear paper as they do to strip tree bark and search for food

    A – Tits are choosing to tear paper instead of taking food which is readily visible and available which weakens the conclusion that tearing paper is a search for food

    B – humans know but that does not mean that tits know that no food is forthcoming

    C – If families feed them it doesn’t mean that birds will not look for more food

    D – Irrelevant to the conclusion

    E – We do not know if these activities are pointless or serve a purpose

    Post Comment

    Inflation in Bolandia has been a steady 10% per year for many years. Evitan, a Bolandian citizen, bought his car one year ago for 500 Bols. He now wants to trade in his car for an identical model. He can expect to receive 80% of the current new value of his existing The price of new models has increased in line with inflation.

    18. How many extra Bols will he have to pay for his new car?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    As inflation is 10% per year, and he is purchasing the same model as he did one year ago, the price of the car would have risen by 10%, from 500 to 550bols (500×1.10=550). He would receive 80% of the new value of his car, which is now 550bols, so it would be 550×0.80 (or 550×4/5)=440bols. Therefore, he extra money he is spending would be 550-440=110bols.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows the unemployment rate and percent change in industrial production over the last year for several countries.

    19. Which country has had a larger percentage increase in industrial production and greater fall in the percentage unemployed than the UK over the last year?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    We only need to look at the parameters for the UK and the 5 other countries given as options A-E. The percentage increase in industrial production for the UK is 4.2-3.3=0.9.This change is actually a decrease for Belgium, so eliminate A. There percentage increase in industrial production for Canada, France, Italy and the USA were 1.5, 9, 8.6 and 2.3 respectively, which are all greater than the percentage change for the UK, so no more answers can be eliminated at this point. The fall in the percentage unemployed than the UK over the last year was: 10-8.8=1.2. For Italy the percentage unemployed actually increased by 1.8%, so eliminate D. For Canada, France and the USA this value was:1.6, 0.6 and 1.0 respectively. Therefore only Canada has had a larger percentage increase in industrial production and greater fall in the percentage unemployed than the UK over the last year.

    Post Comment

    The roads on Bolandia all run either north – south or east – west and are laid out on a 5km Ahmed and Wayne are delivery drivers. One morning, Ahmed starts at Abbeytown and drives 5km west then 15km south to reach Barneyville. He then drives 5km east to Carloston. Wayne started at Barneyville, drove 5km south to Denburgh then 10km east and 15km north to Easterby. Ahmed then rings Wayne to arrange to meet for lunch.

    20. If one of them stays where he is, what is the minimum distance the other must drive to meet him?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    For this question we can use Barneyville, a location that both drivers visit, to figure out how their end locations compare to each other. Jotting down a quick representation of their travels post Barneyville shows that either Ahmed will have to travel 5km east followed by 10km North, or Wayne will have to do the inverse, so drive 10km south followed by 5km west for them to meet. Therefore, the answer is B, 15km

    Post Comment

    The government has announced that it wants to reduce the level of ill-health due to workplace stress. Ministers could learn a lot from a recent study of 8000 white-collar workers in America which found that men who had a high level of control over the way they carried out their jobs had a low rate of heart disease, a stress-related disease. Clearly, therefore, the most stressful jobs are those in which employees have little control over the pace of their work and how it is organised. If the government is serious about wanting to reduce the level of stress-related disease, then it needs to encourage employers to give their workers greater control over their work.

    21. Which of the following is the best statement of a major flaw in the argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    The argument is that the government needs to encourage employers to give their workers greater control over their work to reduce the level of stress-related disease. The support given for this is a study which found that men who had a high level of control over the way they carried out their jobs had a low rate of heart disease, a stress-related disease. But just because stress is one of the risk factors for developing heart disease, does not mean that low stress levels resulted in a lower rate of heart disease, which is highlighted by D. A is not a flaw because the argument does not say that the government is not serious about wanting to reduce stress-related disease. The argument does not assume that in general workers want to be given more control over the organisation of their work, but only that if they did have a greater degree of control this would reduce stress, so eliminate B. The argument does not specify how much control workers would need to be given to reduce stress, only that they need more control than they currently have, so C is incorrect. E is not a flaw because the argument does not make a conclusion that only refers to white-collar workers; instead the study used to support the conclusion is based on white-collar workers.

    Post Comment

    You can become a good pianist if you start to learn at an early age. You did not start to learn until you were an adult, so you cannot become a good pianist.

    22. Which of the following has the same structure as the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    The structure of the argument given in the question is: ‘You can do X if you do Y. You did not do Y, so you cannot do X.’ where X=become a good pianist, Y=start to learn at an early age. Only B parallels this when X=cure your headache, Y=are willing to try acupuncture.

    Post Comment

    If something I do results in someone’s death, I am, of course, responsible for that death. But am I similarly responsible if someone’s death results from my failure to act? For example, if I go and shoot someone, their death is my But if I refuse to give money to a starving person and that person dies as a result of not having money to buy food, is their death my fault? If I had never lived, the starving person would have died anyway, whereas the person whom I shoot would not have died had it not been for me. So, doing something makes me more responsible for the consequences than when I fail to act.

    23. Which of the following illustrates the principle that the author argues for in the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Post Comment

    A long-running play in London’s West End is performed every evening except Sunday. In addition, there are matinee performances every Wednesday, Thursday and Saturday.

    24. What is the maximum number of performances that can be given during a calendar month of 31 days?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    The play performed every evening except Sunday, which is 6 days per week. There are matinee performances every Wednesday, Thursday and Saturday as well, which is an additional 3 days per week. To find the maximum number of performances in 31 consecutive days, we need to include as many Wednesdays, Thursdays and or Saturdays as possible, because these are the days on which the play is performed twice. There will be 4 full weeks in these 31 days, which is 4×7=28 days. In these 4 weeks, there will be 9 plays performed per week: 9×4=36 plays performed. We have 31-28=3 days left. If we started the month on a Wednesday (so Wednesday=1st), the final 3 days after our 4 weeks would be Wednesday, Thursday and Friday. As we would not be able to include all of Wednesday, Thursday and Saturday (the days when there are matinee performances) in the 3 days extra to our 4 full weeks, including 2 of them is the best we can get. From these final 3 days, we would have 2+2+1=5 performances. So in total over the 31 days, the maximum number of performances we could have would be 36+5=41.

    Post Comment

    Peter is having a large conservatory built at the back of his Below is a plan of the project, showing when each part of the conservatory is to be built.

    Each blocked square on the plan represents one man for one day.

    25. How many days labour will Peter have to pay for, and what is the maximum number of workers on site at the same time?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    To find the maximum number of workers on site at the same time, look at the part of the plan where vertically (in a single column) there appears to be the most shaded blocks. This is on the columns representing both the 12th and the 13th of April, where there are 2 men for brickwork, 1 man for roof and 1 man for glass, so a total of 4 men. So we know our answer must be B or D. To work out how many days labour Peter will have to pay for, count how many shaded blocks there are on the entire plan, which is 58. Therefore the answer is D.

    Post Comment

    The design of a tile for a bathroom wall is shown below:

    26. Which of the following patterns may NOT be made using only a number of identical tiles as shown?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Pattern B can not be made using only the tile shown. This can be seen by looking at the leftmost tile in the 2nd row of pattern B (for example), which shows two curved black lines arching over opposite corners, whilst the tile shown in the question has a curved black line in only one of the corners and a more square black line in the opposite corner (rather than another curved black line). Therefore, B uses a tile other than the one given in the question. All the other patterns use only the tile given in the question.

    Post Comment

    The quantity of food produced has always fluctuated according to environmental conditions: gluts and shortages have been with us for five hundred years or more. In the past, the free operation of market forces limited the adverse effects of these fluctuations, usually with far more success than any attempts at planned responses. But now we are changing the environment irreversibly. These changes will not only be permanent, but will have such devastating effects on world agriculture that market forces alone will be unable to prevent a global famine. So it is now vital to seek some sort of planned response.

    27. Which one of the following summarises the main conclusion of the argument above?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    The article talks around how although there has been fluctuations in quality of food produced due to environmental conditions, it is an issue that is becoming more prevalent, and with the irreversible environmental changes that are now occurring, this could lead to issues such as a global famine. The article even states that it is now vital to seek a planned response to this issue. Looking at the answer options, answers D and E are points made, and therefore not the main conclusion. While this question seems hard to find the accurate conclusion for as all answer options are relevant, it is good to think about using the therefore test. In this case, answer options A, B, D and E all act as points that support answer option C as the main conclusion.

    Post Comment

    Scientists are now developing genetically modified crop plants that produce their own pesticide. But pesticides are only effective if they are not overused; if they are applied continuously for long periods, then the pests that they are supposed to kill develop resistance to them. Pesticides only remain effective against pests, therefore, if periods are left during which they are not used. The genetically modified crop plants will produce pesticides continuously

    28. Which of the following is a conclusion that can reliably be drawn from the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The passage talks about the issues around effectiveness of pesticides and leads you to assume that these issues will be faced by genetically modified crop plants, as they continuously produce pesticides. Based on this information answer options B, C and D are ruled as incorrect. While answer option E is a conclusion that could be drawn from the text, as the crops producing their own pesticides would mean they are no longer required to be sprayed onto fields, however, as the passage is aimed at the ill effects of the use of pesticides, this is not an accurate overall conclusion to be drawn from this argument. Therefore, answer option A must be correct, as it is the only answer that takes all of the information provided in the passage into consideration in its conclusion.

    Post Comment

    In the case of plastic drink bottles, recycling is not the best answer to the problem of garbage disposal. Ninety five per cent of soft-drink bottles sold in the United States are made of a compound of polyethylene (PET) which poses recycling problems. They are potentially carcinogenic if recycled into new food or drink containers. Recycled PET tends to absorb other chemicals before re-melting and these chemicals could leach into food or drink that is stored in a recycled container.   However, if disposed of in landfill sites, plastic is not harmful to the environment. It can be squashed flat, so that it occupies little space and it is inert. Unlike other waste, it does not leach into soil or water, nor does it produce a dangerous build-up of methane.

    29. Which of the following is an underlying assumption of the argument above?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    In the passage it is stated that: ‘Recycled PET tends to absorb other chemicals before re-melting and these chemicals could leach into food or drink that is stored in a recycled container’. This point is used to support the argument that ‘recycling is not the best answer to the problem of garbage disposal’. But for this argument only gives a disadvantage for use of recycled PET in food and drink containers. For this argument to be valid, it must be that there are no other uses (besides food and drink containers) for recycled PET, because if there were then we may have an advantage of recycling PET and then a challenge to the conclusion that recycling may not be the best way forwards. This assumption is highlights by D. The remaining answer options are not necessary assumptions, as if each was taken to be false individually, the argument would still hold (be valid).

    Post Comment

    I am resurfacing my driveway using bricks in the pattern shown below. The visible part of the brick measures 10cm by 20cm. To achieve a rectangular shape, part of some of the bricks must be cut off. The part which is cut off can be used elsewhere on the drive. The diagram shows that eight bricks would be required to cover an area 40cm by 40cm:

    30. What is the minimum number of bricks needed to resurface a rectangular drive measuring 550cm by 400cm?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    As 550 is a multiple of 10 and 400 is a multiple of 20, we will have an exact number of bricks that will fit. As the parts of the bricks which are cut off can be used elsewhere on the drive, we only need to consider the total number of bricks. The total area of the rectangular drive would be: 550×400=220000cm^2. The area of a single brick is: 20×10=200cm^2. Therefore, the number of whole bricks required is: 220000/200=1100.

    Post Comment

    John has 15kg of general potting compost which is made up of 1/3 sand and 2/3 coir. He wants compost to repot some conifers which require a better draining mixture of 60% sand to 40% coir.

    31. How much sand does he have to add to his general purpose compost to make it suitable for conifers?
  • 1
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    His 15kg of general potting compost consists of 15/3=5kg of sand and 15-5=10kg of coir. We can use trial by error of the answer options given until we get the correct ratio of sand to coir as 3:2. If we add 5kg of sand, the ratio becomes 10:10=1:1, which is not want we want. Adding 10kg, the ratio becomes 15:10=3:2, which is what we want, therefore B is the answer.

    Post Comment

    A netball tournament is divided into two stages. In the first stage, the teams are divided into equal groups within which each team plays every other team once. In the second stage, the winners of each group take part in a knockout competition which starts with four quarter finals.

    32. Which of the following could be the number of teams starting the tournament?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    At the start of the 4 quarter finals, we would need 8 teams (2 per final), but as these 8 teams are the winners of the previous stage, there must have been 8 groups, so there were more than 8 teams starting, so eliminate A. As there were 8 groups before the quarter finals and each group consisted of the same number of teams, the total number of teams at the start must have been a multiple of 8. Out of the remaining answers B-E, only 72 is a multiple of 8, therefore E is the answer.

    Post Comment

    Catalytic convertors are increasingly being fitted to cars as a means of reducing some of the harmful emissions from car But, though they eliminate one form of pollution, their action serves only to create another one. Ground-level ozone is kept at very low levels in the cities by some of the pollutants catalysts remove. So the more catalytic convertors that are fitted, the more such ozone can build up. Since ozone is a major cause of choking summer smogs, we can assume that people with breathing difficulties, such as asthmatics, will be much worse off the more that catalytic convertors are used. We should stop fitting cars with catalytic convertors.

    33. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Passage argues catalytic converters made to combat one type of pollution and created another. It says that by removing some pollutants it preserves the ground-level ozone. It says that the ozone is a major cause of choking smogs – people with breathing conditions will be worse off due to these converters

    A B D E all irrelevant since they do not affect whether increasing number of catalytic converters in cars will increase breathing difficulties

    Post Comment

    Membership of the European Union (EU) has resulted in the maintenance of economic growth and political stability for the countries that make it up. It is desirable that the countries that used to be part of the Communist Eastern Bloc become comparably prosperous and stable. Therefore the European Union should be enlarged as soon as possible to include more Eastern Bloc countries.

    34. This argument is flawed. Which of the following identifies an error in its reasoning?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The argument is that we want Eastern Bloc countries become as prosperous and stable as countries that are members of the European union, so more Eastern Bloc countries should be included in the European Union to enable this. For this reasoning to be valid, it must be that including these countries in the European union will enable them to improve, and therefore they must already posses the capability to do so. But this may not be the case, which is highlighted by answer A. B is not a flaw because the argument specifies Eastern Bloc countries, not other countries which may not be apart of the Union. C is not a flaw because the argument just states what should be done and does not speculate on opposing views (the argument may not be balanced but that does not mean it is not valid). The argument does not suggest D, which is the reverse but not the same. E is not assumed; the argument refers to both political and economic changes but does not imply that the two are interchangeable.

    Post Comment

    All’s fair in love and war – and motor racing. That’s how some commentators view the failed attempt by a great driver to disable his main rival’s car by steering into it. Had he succeeded, he would have won the championship, because he was ahead on Fair? Why not? It may have been dangerous and irresponsible but it was not unfair. This driver had earned his one-point lead in the championship and was trying, like any serious competitor, to defend it. In a reversed situation, the other driver could – and arguably would – have done the same. Motor racing is a tough and uncompromising sport with huge incentives to win at all costs and all the drivers know what to expect.

    35. Which of the following best summarises the main conclusion of the argument above?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The passage speaks about the competitive nature of motor raining, and the dangerous lengths that some drivers go to in order to score more points. The argument goes onto add that most drivers would act in the same way in they were in the same situation. However, provides mix feelings as to the fairness of such actions. Looking at the answer options, B and E, are all points that are raised within the text, and are likely to be followed by a therefore, leading to the conclusion, therefore showing that they are not the main conclusion of this passage. Option C is not a valid conclusion, as it disagrees with the passage. While option D does follow the paragraph, it is not covering all the points raised in the passage. The only answer option to addresses all points raised, and while may be not your opinion, does reflect the opinion of the paragraph.

    Post Comment

    Below is part of an itinerary for flying from London to Kampala. It involves changing flights at Dubai with a wait of 5 hours 15 minutes. All times are local times. Dubai is 4 hours ahead of London and Kampala is 1 hour behind Dubai.

    DEPART LONDON (HEATHROW)        22:30 FRI 30.01.04

    DEPART DUBAI                                    14:30 SAT 31.01.04

    ARRIVE KAMPALA (ENTEBE)               20:45 SAT 31.01.04

    36. What is the total time spent in the air?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Kampala is 1 hour behind Dubai, which is 4 hours ahead of London, so Kampala is 3 hours ahead of London. So the arrival time at Kampala 20:45 SAT 31.01.04 in Kampala local time would be 17:45 SAT 31.01.04 in London local time. The depart from London was at 22:30 FRI 30.01.04 (London local time). The time difference between the depart from London and the arrival at Kampala would be the difference in time between 22:30 FRI 30.01.04 and 17:45 SAT 31.01.04, which is 19hrs and 15minutes in total. But, in the question it is given that there is a wait of 5 hours 15 minutes at Dubai, so subtract this from 19hrs and 15minutes to calculate the time spent flying, which would be 14hrs, answer B. The depart time at Dubai does not need to be used to find the answer to this question.

    Post Comment

    Peter needs to separate his sheep into 16 squares. Each side of a pen is formed by a free-standing barrier known as a hurdle. Each pen must be individually accessible on at least one side so that sheep can be penned or released without a risk of the others escaping.

    37. What is the smallest number of hurdles that Peter must take out to the fields in order to accomplish his task?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    To use to minimum number of hurdles, we must make the pens ‘share’ the maximum possible number of hurdles, whilst keeping each pen individually accessible on at least one side. To do this we must form two back-to-back lines of square pens, i.e. a 8 by 2 grid. This would require 42 hurdles in total, which is B.

    Post Comment

    A piece of ribbon 8m long is folded in half so the two ends are on top of each other. This doubled 4m length is then folded in half again. The folded, 2m length of ribbon is then cut right through at its midway point.

    38. How many cut pieces are there and what are their lengths?
  • 1
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Draw out the ribbon at each successive stage. This should show you that cutting through the folded 2m ribbon would make 4 cuts in the ribbon. This would give 5 pieces of ribbon, and as only answer C gives this number it must be the correct answer.

    Post Comment
    Mohammad Eisa Ali Medicmind Tutor

    Tue, 25 Jan 2022 15:48:45

    Shouldn't be 4? Anyone explain the reasoning.

    dddd Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 12 Aug 2022 13:47:57

    ummmm . what

    anon Medicmind Tutor

    Sun, 15 Oct 2023 15:12:22

    how is it not E?

    Ecotourism now accounts for twenty per cent of tourists. It should provide a sustainable alternative to overuse of natural However, tourists may introduce new diseases to animal populations. Mongooses and meerkats in Botswana have died from tuberculosis caught from humans, and gorillas in East Africa picked up new internal parasites after the introduction of tourism. Moreover, the presence of humans in increased numbers has been shown to stress polar bears, penguins, dolphins and rainforest birds, affecting their natural routines and reducing breeding success.

    39. Which of the following can reliably be inferred from the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    The passage examines how ecotourism must offer a sustainable substitute to the overuse of natural resources, however it then also illustrates the range of problems that are associated or can be generated by this. These include a reduction in breeding success, stress and diseases. This suggests that the negative outcomes can outweigh the positive, and this is particularly supported by the fact that the passage indicates that ecotourism should offer an alternative that is sustainable, which holds an implication that indeed it doesn’t, therefore E can inferred reliably. Nothing can be inferred about the attributes of the changes observes such as altered behaviour patterns and new diseases, thus the recommendation that they may not be as obvious to a casual observer in A. cannot be confirmed from the passage reliably. The statements C. and D. are not relevant and we have no information, (for example, we cannot tell if the dolphins become frantic when they are near fishing boats) hence this is why neither C. and D. can be reliably inferred. B. also cannot be reliably inferred, this is due to the passage indicating that ecotourism projects are in fact not sustainable because of the damage caused to wildlife.

    Post Comment

    French golfer, Jean Van de Velde, appeared to throw away his big chance to win the Open Championship, after giving up what could only be described as an unassailable Most players would have been distraught to have victory snatched from them in such a way. But, interviewed afterwards, Van de Velde pointed out that it was, after all, only a game: There are worse things in life, he said. Really? It may be refreshing to hear a top competitor express such a philosophical attitude, but it also explains fully why the prize eluded him. At that level you have to believe that nothing is worse than losing.

    40. Which one of the following is an underlying assumption of the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The argument indicates that the reason why Jean Van de Velde did not win the Open Championship was because he did not mind if he didn’t win. This is shown by the writer’s apparent shocked/confused tone in response to the unorthodox reaction of the French Golfer after he didn’t win, coupled with the statement ‘it also explains fully why the prize eluded him’. Therefore, it must be assumed if Van de Valde did not have this attitude towards winning, he would have won, which is highlighted by answer A. B is not assumed as the argument refers to a specific example of a golfer and does not make any generalised statements of this. C is not an assumption, as it stated explicitly that top competitors need to believe this in the final sentence of the passage..

    Post Comment

    Electrical goods retailers often offer ‘extended warranties’ which guarantee free repairs if the product breaks down during the term of the warranty. Salespeople are keen to persuade customers to buy these warranties because they gain substantial commission from them. Customers may also be tempted to buy them, since they ensure that the purchaser will not be faced with huge repair However, surveys by consumer protection agencies show that the average cost of repairs per customer is less than the average cost of a warranty. Anybody buying electrical goods would, therefore, be well-advised not to buy an extended warranty, as it represents poor value for money.

    41. Which one of the following, if true, would weaken the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Passage describes how extended warranties for electrical goods are bad value for money since the average repair cost per customer is less than price of the warranty. So, it concludes customers are better off not buying extended warranties

    A C D E all strengthen this conclusion by reinforcing the notion that warranties are bad value for money

    B is only one that weakens conclusion – average cost of repairs if a repair is needed is greater than the cost of warranty at times

    Post Comment

    A small mail order company sends out three sizes of parcel in about equal numbers which require postages of 24c, 30c and 72c. They stock stamps in denominations of 6c and 30c and use the minimum number of stamps on each parcel.

    42. What proportion of the two denominations of stamps should the company buy?
  • 1
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    The first step is to work out how the required postages of 24c, 30c and 72c are made up using the minimum number of stamps. For 24c we can see that this must be made up of 4 units of the 6c stamps, while the 30c postage is met by a single 30c stamp and the 72 postage by 2 units of the 30c and 2 units of the 6c stamps. Overall, since the three sizes of parcel are sent out in equal numbers, this ratio comes to 6 units of the 6c for every 3 units of the 30c stamps. This simplifies to 2 units of the 6c for every 30c stamp. Therefore, answer option C is correct.

    Post Comment

    Every year the 12 local teams that compete for the Tipley and District Tiddlywinks Trophy are split into two leagues for the purpose of eliminating four of the teams, and sorting out the pairings for the knockout stage of the competition. The table below shows how this is done (QF is Quarter Final).

    1st QF

    Winners League A v 4th place League B
    2nd QF

    3rd place League A v Runners-up League B

    3rd QF

    Winners League B v 4th place League A
    4th QF

    3rd place League B v Runners-up League A

    1st Semi-final

    Winners of 1st QF v Winners of 2nd QF
    2nd Semi-final

    Winners of 3rd QF v Winners of 4th QF

    This year’s league stage has just been completed, with the following results.

    League A League B
    1st The Scorpions

    The Scales

    2nd

    The Fish The Bulls
    3rd The Bearers

    The Goats

    4th

    The Rams The Archers
    5th The Crabs

    The Maidens

    6th

    The Lions

    The Twins

    Despite having finished 3rd in their league, the reigning champions, The Goats are still confident of reaching the final.

    43. If The Goats are successful, what are the alternatives as to their prospective opponents in the final?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    As a first step we can trace through the matches that The Goats will play on the way to the Finals, as any opponents they defeat during the Quarterfinals or Semi-finals will not make it to the finals and will therefore not be one of the prospective opponents. We can see that they will first play in the 4th QF against the runners-up in League A, which are the The Fish. Hence as they will have to defeat the Fish to get through to the Finals, The Fish are not possible opponents of The Goats in the Finals. We can therefore rule out answer options A and B. The Goats will next play in the 2nd Semi-finals against the winners of the 3rd QF. We can see the two teams playing in the 3rd QF are the Scales and the Rams. One of these teams will fail in the QFs while the other will lose to the Goats in the Semi-finals if the Goats are going to make it to the Finals, hence any answer options including either of these teams can be ruled out. This leaves us with answer options C and E. The only difference between these options is the Archers in C and The Twins in E. A glance at the table shows that the Twins finished last in League B. They therefore do not play in any of the QFs and have no chance of ending up in the final so we can exclude E, giving us the correct answer option of C.

    Post Comment

    Jess buys two lengths of carpet in the sales. The carpet is 4m wide and one of the lengths purchased is 4m long while the other is 6m. There is a very pronounced pattern which means that the pieces can only be joined so that the pattern runs the same Jess will only accept one join.

    44. In which of Jess’s rooms could the carpet be fitted?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    Since one of the lengths of carpet bought by Jess measures 4m by 4m, any room where both the sides are greater than 4m will require more than one join. Since Jess will accept only one join, this means that one of the sides of the room has to be 4m or less and therefore the only room that can be carpeted is the library as one of the sides of the floor measures 4m.

    Post Comment

    Over the past few years in parts of the South West, a number of farm animals have been found killed in the fields. The nature of the injuries indicates that a large predator must have been responsible. Local people talk of a number of ‘big cats’ such as pumas being responsible, claiming that such animals have indeed been seen. Official investigations into these claims have dismissed them, concluding that any sightings have been of domestic rather than of big cats. But these investigations have failed to deal with the point that, even if the sightings can be explained in terms of domestic cats, the injuries on the carcasses of the farm animals cannot Big cats such as pumas must be responsible for these attacks.

    45. Which of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?
  • 0
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The article offers some thoughts on how a number of farm animals have sustained injuries in fields, and how these are indicative of large predators. The article talks on how sightings of big cats have been dismissed, yet there still remains a question as to how these farm animals sustained such injuries, with the final line of the passage stating that big cats must be responsible for these attacks. This final line does act as a suitable conclusion to this argument, so lets take a look at the answer options. Options B and C are incorrect and therefore cannot be the conclusion of this passage. Option D isn’t explored in the passage, while option E offers a vague answer, that again isn’t really covered in the passage. This leaves you with answer option A, which agrees with the passage, and the concluding sentence of the passage, that big cats, such as pumas must be responsible for these attacks.

    Post Comment

    If you intend to have a fire you will need dry kindling wood and a firelighter. Unfortunately the kindling wood has been left out in the rain. So, even though you have a firelighter, you will not be able to light the fire.

    46. Which of the following arguments has the same structure as the argument above?
  • 0
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Post Comment

    If the government gives financial support for the arts, this means that a proportion of each person’s taxes will be used to finance museums and theatres. But some people who pay taxes never set foot in a museum or a theatre and those who do use these services are usually well able to afford to pay for them. Since no one should be forced to subsidise services which they themselves do not use, taxpayers’ money should not be used to support the arts.

    47. Which of the following statements is an application of the principle underlying the argument in the passage?
  • 0
    0

    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Post Comment

    In a prize weight-lifting competition the winner receives $100 if he lifts 80kg. He then receives $10 for the next 5 additional kg, $15 for the second, and the incremental prize money increases by a further $5 for each additional unit of 5kg he successfully lifts.

    The winner of the competition lifts 110kg.

    48. How much prize money does he receive?
  • 0
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    The winner lifts 30kg more than 80kg, which means that they will receive incremental prize money for the 6 additional units of 5kg that they have lifted. This adds up to 100+10+15+20+25+30+35= $235 and hence the answer is C.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows the expenses by month for a given household.

    49. In which month were the energy costs highest?
  • 0
    3

    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    For this question, a lot of information is provided but it is key that you only focus on the expenses associated with energy costs. This includes the gas, electricity, coal and logs for fire rows. Quickly scanning through these rows alone shows that the highest energy cost is incurred in May with Electricity and logs contributing to a total of 180.

    Post Comment

    Vinod and Sarah are about to move some cube-shaped boxes that have been left in the middle of a store room. The appearance of the boxes from above and the positions of Vinod and Sarah are shown below.

    Vinod sees this:

    50. Which of the following cannot be the view that Sarah sees?
  • 0
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Vinod can see a stack of 3 boxes in the leftmost column that he can see. The bird’s eye view from above shows that this leftmost column from Vinod’s view consists of a single stack of boxes. This means that that stack is exactly three boxes tall and therefore any of the answer options in which the middle column from Sarah’s view is less than 3 boxes tall cannot be possible. This means that answer option D is not possible and therefore that is the answer.

    Post Comment

    2008 S1 Review Screen

    Instructions

    Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.

    The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:

    1. Review all of your questions and answers.
    2. Review questions that are incomplete.
    3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)

    You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.

    2008 S1 Section

    Final Answer Review Screen

    Instructions

    This review section allows you to view the answers you made and see whether they were correct or not. Each question accessed from this screen has an 'Explain Answer' button in the top left hand side. By clicking on this you will obtain an explanation as to the correct answer.

    At the bottom of this screen you can choose to 'Review All' answers, 'Review Incorrect' answers or 'Review Flagged' answers. Alternatively you can go to specific questions by opening up any of the sub-tests below.

    2008 S1 Section

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