Your Time has Finished
Which UCAT Exam
are you sitting?
Loading...
TSA 2013 S1
Your Score: % + Band
Average Score of All Users:
You performed better than of students
Section Breakdown
| Your Score | Average of all Users | Percentile | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 2013 S1 |
2013 S1
Your score:
Average score:
You performed better than of students
This section is Section 1 of 3.
Speed as well as accuracy is important in this section. Work quickly, or you might not finish the paper. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only marks for correct answers, so you should attempt all 50 questions. Each question is worth one mark.
You must complete the answers within the time limit. Calculators are NOT permitted.
Good Luck!
Note – if press “End Exam” you can access full worked solutions for all past paper questions
This week a controversial chef is urging the great British public to sample a fabulous new But instead of a buying bonanza the chef’s comments have provoked outrage because the meat in question is horse. Even the staunchest meat-eaters are up in arms. Says a rival chef: ‘I would never eat horse meat and would never serve it to my customers. It’s not part of our food culture. It’s unthinkable.’ But aren’t we being just the teeniest bit irrational? After all, in France and Belgium, two of our closest neighbours, there are whole shelves of horse meat alongside the beef and chicken. Here we eat lamb and pig, duck, even deer, ostrich and kangaroo. If we eat these, what is logically different about horse? Nothing.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
This passage speaks about public opinions on eating horse. The argument overall is that there is no difference between eating other meats to that of horse, however it is still considered controversial in public opinion. Looking at the answer options, A, B and C are all points that are raised in the argument, yet are not conclusions of the passage. E, while is something raised in the text, is only a partial conclusion fro the overall argument. This leaves answer D, which is the correct answer, and distinguishable from answer E by using the therefore test.
Three thermometers are each accurate to within 2 degrees above or below the temperature they actually One reads 7°, one reads 9° and one reads 10°.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
First, find the lower and upper bounds for the range of each thermometer by subtracting and adding 2 degrees to the temperature shown on each thermometer respectively. The ranges are: for the 7 degree thermometer=5-9, for the 9 degree one=7-11 and for the 10 degree one=8-12. The maximum range is found by finding the highest and lowest temperature possible out of all the thermometers, which is 5-12 degrees. To find the minimum range, you find the lowest upper bound of range (which is 9 degrees, the upper bound of the 7 degree thermometer) and the highest lower bound of range (which is 8 degrees, the lower bound of the 10 degree thermometer). Therefore the minimum possible range is 8-9 degrees.
The most popular theory about the origin of the Moon is that it was formed from debris breaking off the Earth in a planetary collision 5 billion years ago. If this were true, the Moon would be made of the same material as is found on Earth. Examination of Moon rocks shows this to be the case, although there is little iron in Moon rocks. However, this can be explained because, according to the theory, the material that formed the Moon would have come from the Earth’s crust, not its iron-rich core. Thus we should accept the theory as true.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
The argument is that we should accept the theory that the moon was formed from debris breaking off the earth 4.5 billion years ago, because if this were true the moon would be made of the same material as Earth, which it is. The flaw in this argument is that it implies that because the moon is made of the same material as the Earth, the theory has to be true, but there could be another explanation (a different theory of how the moon was formed) which the same evidence supports. Therefore D is the answer.
The International Code of Zoological Nomenclature states that the earliest recorded scientific name for an organism becomes the official name. This seems fair, but the system is flawed. Textbooks show the sequence of fossil ancestors of the modern horse as: Pliohippus, Merychippus, Mesohippus and the first horse ancestor The last of these looks out of place. Hyracotherium was once, more sensibly, called Eohippus; this descriptive name means “dawn horse”. The suffix –hippus (horse) is consistent with others in the list. Eohippus also sounds pleasant. The name was changed when it was discovered that a fossil fragment that had been named Hyracotherium was really from the same animal that had, until then, been called Eohippus.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
The text talks about the flawed system of scientific naming for organisms from The International Code of Zoological Nomenclature. The passage goes on to talk about how there was the changing of names from Hyracotherium to Eohippus. Looking at the answer options, A is incorrect as the passage revolves around the scientific naming decisions. B is also incorrect as it is not stated which is most appropriate. Option D is also not able to be accurately concluded as this is an opinion based conclusion, while E is again opinion based and therefore could not be accurately concluded. Leaving answer C as the correct, as it is offering the balanced conclusion that the passage talks through.
At Everthorpe Prison in Yorkshire, prisoners made no attempt to escape using ladders placed against the outside walls by drug dealers and prostitutes plying their trades. A prison officer spokesperson said that this was because the authorities had made prisons too comfortable and thus failed to deter A large number of released prisoners quickly reoffended and returned to prison, where they had all the comforts of home: a television in each cell, breakfast in bed, a wage and cash bonuses for good behaviour.
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
The spokesperson’s argument is that prisons failed to deter criminals because they have been made to comfortable. One piece of evidence given in support of this argument is that ‘prisoners quickly reoffended’, implying that the reason they did this was due to the comfort of prison. However, this suggests that if prison was not comfortable, then the prisoners wouldn’t have reoffended, hence A is the assumption.
On only 360 occasions during the twentieth century was it possible to write the date in the form DD/MM/YYYY using eight different One example was 28th July 1956 (28/07/1956).
Eleven of Arthur’s birthdays have been such dates (though not his date of birth), and in 1974 and 1983 the two digits that did not form part of the date made up his age at the time.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
Crossing out the digits included within the years 1974 and 1983 gives us the remaining four digits 1,2,5 and 6 which would go towards forming the day and month of Arthur’s birthday, which will stay constant. This means that the two digits that are not part of the date and make up his age are 3 and 8 in 1974 and 4 and 7 in 1983. He must be 38 in 1974 and 47 in 1983 as this is the only combination that means that the increases in age by 9 between those two years. Therefore 1974-38 will give us his birth year which is 1936. The correct answer is therefore D.
In order to qualify for a bonus, employees must fulfil certain criteria:
Workers performed as follows:
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
The question is asking who qualifies for any bonus, so use the less strict criteria (for the £500 bonus). First eliminate who has equal to or more than 10% absences: eliminate Patel. Then eliminate anyone who hasn’t met their production targets: elimate McKay because the percentage over production target given is negative. Then eliminate anyone who has 8% or more of their products rejected: which is nobody who hasn’t already been eliminated. Therefore, all the people remaining Owololu, Patel and Smith, qualify for a bonus.
I stopped in a town called Akeland to ask the way to Eksberg. The only sense I could get from a local was as follows:
Akeland is east of Benford.
Eksberg is north of Cranton.
Ducton is south of Akeland.
Cranton is west of Ducton.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
Draw out what you know, representing each place using the first letter of the name of the place. Taking the statements in order, A is east of B, so write B A. E is north of C but we don’t know either of their positions relative to A or B, so leave E and C for now. D is south of A, so write D below A. C is west of D, so write C to the right of D. Going back to the second statement, E is north of C, so write E above C. We know that C is west of D (which is below A) and that E is above C, therefore E must be west of A. However we do not know whether E is north or south of A, because we don’t know whether C is north or south of A. If C was south of A, E could be north or south of A because E is above C, and if C was north of A, E would also be north of A. Therefore B is the answer.
The recent campaign to reduce the number of people who drive while over the legal alcohol limit was very successful. But reducing it further is going to be difficult without addressing one of the main problems: people in rural areas have no choice, in the absence of public transport, but to use their People who live in towns and cities can use buses, trains or readily available taxis if they want to go out for a drink. Furthermore, they don’t have to go far to find pubs and clubs. Unless the Government wants the level of drink-driving to increase, it needs to ensure that far more pubs and clubs are built in rural areas.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
The argument is that more pubs/clubs need to be built in rural areas to reduce the level of drink-driving, because then people living in rural areas would not have to travel as far. D strengthens the argument because if more people will be living in rural areas, more people would have to drive to towns and cities to get to pubs/clubs, which may increase levels of drink-driving.
Another pair of British media personalities have announced their separation. Both are well-paid personalities who profit enormously from the publicity they attract from their behaviour. Media personalities like them usually employ agents who can generate publicity, arrange well-paid personal appearances and sell stories and photo shoots to glossy magazines. These agents probably generate more income for some media personalities than their original activity, such as Therefore it’s clear that talent is no longer rewarded.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
The argument is that talent is no longer rewarded because more money may be generated for some media personalities than for one’s original activity or talent. However, just because more reward (in this case money) may be given for items other than one’s talent, it does not mean that no reward is given for talent, just possibly less. Therefore B highlights the flaw. A does not affect the argument because the argument refers to only those who are talented, not those who are not. C is not a flaw because is does not indicate whether this income was rewarded for talent or not. D suggests there may be less talent but does not refer to reward. E does not refer to talent nor reward.
Films are expensive to produce and must take a significant amount of money at the box office to cover costs before any profit is made. Thus filmmakers are primarily interested in making a film that will appeal to a large number of people and so make a lot of profit. This often leads to the production of superficial, violent films that attract a large audience. Therefore, the Government should invest in the film If it did that, filmmakers would not need to be motivated entirely by the aim for profit.
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
This passage talks through the issues seen in the film industry with regards to funds, with expensive to make films being required to make a large amount in the box office. The article talks about how the government should invest in the film industry, to motivate filmmakers to not be motivated by profit. Looking at the answers, B and C are points made in the text, D is irrelevant, while E, although true, is again a point raised in the text, and is not an overall conclusion. E, along with B and C all support option A as the overall main conclusion of the argument.
I have just joined a savings I will pay in £50 each month and at the end of each complete year I will be paid 5% interest on my average balance (i.e. the average of my starting and finishing amount) for the previous 12 months.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
The balance at the end of the first year after the £50 deposits will be £50×12 = £600. This means that the average balance for that year after averaging the starting (£0) and finishing amount (£600) will be £300. 5% of this will be £15, so the complete balance at the end of the first year after the interest has been paid will be £615. The next year he will continue to pay in £50 per month, so the balance at the end will be £1215. To calculate the interest at the end of the second year: the average balance will be (£615+£1215)/2=£915. 5% of £915 is about £45 (£45.75 to be exact but it is unnecessary to calculate this as the answers are rounded to the nearest £10) £1215+the interest of £45 = £1260 giving us the correct answer of B.
Every Thursday, Marilyn spends 10 hours making 60 cakes to sell at her local market. The cost of the ingredients to make each cake is £1.60 and Marilyn charges £6 an hour for her time. She usually sets the sale price for a cake at 75% more than the total costs of making However, when she sells to her friends she gives them a 10% discount on the normal sale price.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
Time taken to make one cake= 10hrs/60cakes= 1/6hrs. Charge for time per cake= 1/6hrsx£6=£1. Total cost of making one cake=charge for time+cost of ingredients=£1+£1.60=£2.60. Regular sale price for 1 cake=£2.60×1.75 (or £2.60+ 75%), which can be calculated by finding a quarter (25%) of 2.60 by dividing by 4, which gives 0.65, and then multiplying this by 3 to get 75%, which gives 1.95, and then adding this to the original 2.60, which gives £4.55. Then to calculate the discount price, the calculation would be £4.55×0.90, which can be calculated by finding 10% of 4.55, which is 0.455, and then subtracting this from the original price to find 90%: 4.55-0.455=4.095, which is £4.10 to the nearest penny.
A business, facing turbulent times, changed the wages of its workers by the same percentage in two successive years, but the changes were in opposite directions.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
We can assume the % change in wages each time to be X. The wage would decrease by X% of the original wage if the original change was a reduction. The following change would be an increase by X% of a lesser amount so it would not be as big as the original reduction would have been. Also, it would not increase the wage as high as the original either. On the contrary, if the original change was a rise, the wage would increase by X% of the original wage, nonetheless, the following change would be a reduction of X% of a larger amount, therefore being bigger than the original rise and also bringing the wage less than that of the original wage. This suggests that the new wage has to be less than the original wage and C) is correct.
sina
Medicmind Tutor
Thu, 27 Oct 2022 00:37:49
very good
Those in favour of coursework contributing to A-Level grades say that this is much fairer than assessment by exam only, as it means that students who are willing to work hard but who perform poorly in exams will have a better chance of doing However, this arrangement currently allows far more opportunity for cheating, casting doubt on its fairness. For example, there is a growing market for customised essays, available (for a fee) via the Internet. At the moment the only deterrent is a teacher’s vigilance, but while teachers might identify work that seems atypical for individual students, they won’t necessarily detect when, for example, a student has had an unacceptable amount of help from family or friends.
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
The passage speaks about coursework at the fairness of its impact on A-level grades. The passage argues that coursework provides fairness, yet it also speaks about cheating being more comment, and how currently the only deterrent is a teacher’s vigilance for cheating. Looking at the answers, B, although reflecting the main point of the argument, isn’t the overall conclusion that was demonstrated. Option C, D and E are not fully discussed in the argument, and are based on points in the text. Therefore it can be concluded that answer A is the correct conclusion that is supported best by the passage.
Largely because of the influence of celebrity TV chefs and increased customer demand, many supermarkets have recently enlarged the amount of game (e.g. rabbits, pheasants and venison) in their meat sections. Factory farming is seen as cruel to the animals involved. Rabbit meat, in particular, is selling well as it is tastier than chicken and is cheaper than beef or Game is also low in fat and cholesterol. If people are really concerned about animal welfare they should take advantage of the increased availability of game in the supermarkets. They will also be getting a nutritious and cheap diet.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
The part of the argument is that people should buy more game meat if they are concerned about animal welfare. This implies that the production of game meat does not compromise animal welfare. Therefore C must be an assumption, because the second sentence in the passage states that factory farming is cruel to animals, so if those who are concerned about animal welfare should buy game, game must not be produced by factory farming as this method is not fair to animals.
The production of standard disposable nappies from petrochemicals is wholly unsustainable. It is estimated that, while in disposable nappies, a baby will generate two tonnes of used nappies which will end up in landfill. Washable nappies have a significantly reduced environmental impact at production and at eventual disposal. Landfill sites are already in short supply, with recycling programmes aiming to reduce waste. However, if the Government wants to meet its sustainability targets it must do more to increase the use of washable nappies.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
The argument is that the government must do more to increase use of washable nappies if it wants to meet its sustainability targets, because washable nappies have reduced environmental impact, whereas tonnes of disposable nappies per baby that uses them will end up in landfill. A weakens the argument because it gives a disadvantage of using washable nappies in terms of sustainability. B also weakens the argument because is gives an advantage of disposable nappies. C gives an environmental disadvantage of disposable nappies, which strengthens the argument. D and E neither strengthen nor weaken the argument.
Sven is a keen cyclist and is riding from Alvros to Berget. At his normal cycling speed this will take him 30 minutes. His wife, Helga, will go by car to bring him and his bike back. They leave at the same time, but two thirds of the way between the two towns the car breaks down and Helga has to walk the rest of the way. The car goes at three times the speed Sven cycles. But Helga walks at only one third of the speed he cycles.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
Since the car goes three times the speed that Sven cycles, this means that it will complete the journey in 3 times less the time. Since it takes Sven 30 minutes from Alvros to Berget, the car will therefore take just 10 minutes. The car breaks down two thirds of the way between, so Helga travels using the car for 10 x 2/3 = 6.66 minutes. The remaining 1/3 she walks. As she walks at 1/3 the speed that Sven cycles (so she is 3 times slower), this means that it will take her 3 times as longer to complete the full journey. So the complete journey (had she walked the whole way) would have taken her 30×3=90 mins. Since she is only walking a third of the way this means that she walks for 90/3=30mins. So overall while Sven completes the journey in 30mins, Helga takes 6.66+30 mins = 36.66 mins. This means that to the nearest minute, Sven arrives first by 7 minutes and the correct answer option is C.
I am making a patchwork quilt from leftover pieces of cloth of various shapes and This pentagonal piece of cloth is rather large, so I want to cut it into two pieces.
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
A can be done by drawing a horizontal line between the upper 2 corner (below the apex). B can be done by drawing a line from the middle of the left diagonal edge to the upper right corner or from the middle of the right diagonal edge to the upper left corner. C can be done by drawing a line from the left vertical edge to the base or the right vertical edge to the base. D can be done by drawing a horizontal line between the middle of the left and right vertical edges.
Thomas needs to book a place to sit a test next week, but is free only in the mornings. The test centre runs the test every day from Monday to Friday and holds a morning and an afternoon Each sitting has a total of 100 places available and will take place in the main hall unless there are 30 or fewer candidates, in which case a smaller room is used. He does not like to take tests in crowded places, so he wants to make sure that he is in the main hall and will try to be with the smallest number of other candidates possible. The number of places that are still available are shown in the table below.
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
We can ignore all the pm slots as Thomas is only free in the mornings. He wants to be in the main hall, and therefore we can exclude any slots where there are 70 or more available spaces (as this means that there are 30 or fewer candidates). This means that he cannot do Monday. From the remaining days we want to pick the day with the highest number of spaces available so that he is with the smallest number of candidates possible while still being in the main hall. The highest number of available spaces is present on Friday, so the correct answer option is E.
In recent years there has been a great deal of media attention focused on the private lives of politicians and world leaders, with particular attention paid to their personal There are those who suggest that this attention is unwarranted because only their professional abilities are important to their political role. This attitude fails to consider that the public have little insight into the day-to-day lives of world leaders and, indeed, few points of reference. Personal lives offer common ground. In democratic states leaders are elected based on how the public perceive them, and private lives can offer an insight into an individual’s values. The personal aspects of a politician’s life should continue to be reported if the electorate find it important.
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
The argument is that the personal lives of politicians should be reported if the public find it important. The reasons given for this include the fact that the public have little insight into the lives of world leaders and because personal lives offer a way for the public to relate to the politicians. E strengthens the argument by suggesting that the insight into politicians’ lives they see will be an accurate representation of their actual lives, which increases the likelihood of the public finding these insights important. A, B and D seem not to affect the strength of the argument, whereas C may actually weaken it because it gives a negative effect of allowing public insight into the lives of politicians.
Criminals often give themselves away by their lifestyle. My neighbour is a criminal because he bought and is living in a very expensive house, which I know he could not afford as he is officially working only in a poorly paid jobs.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
The reasoning given is that the neighbour has bought an expensive house, but he is working in a poorly paid job, therefore he must be a criminal. B parallels this: it is impossible for you to write more than 4 pages in half an hour, but you have written 7 pages, therefore you must have spent longer than 4 hours on it.
There is often concern about the large quantities of money earned by top singers. It could be argued that there are many ways in which this money could be spent that would be beneficial to a large number of However, these people are receiving high earnings because they are the best at what they do and those who are better than others at what they do should be rewarded.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
The principle is that people who are better than others at what they do should be rewarded. C mirrors this by saying that staff who are more efficient should be awarded more.
Mr Daley has bought some used carpeting for his new 24 m x 12 m car showroom. The carpet is in 8 m x 4 m rectangles which will be joined using a strip of double-sided tape along all seams. Additionally, double-sided tape will be needed to stick the carpet around the edges of the showroom.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
9 lots of the 8mx4m carpet will cover the floor of the room in a 3 by 3 arrangement. Therefore, Mr Daley will need tape to stick the carpet down around the edges of the room which is= 24+12+24+12=72m of tape, as well as tape for the seams between the different carpet segments, which will be an additional 24+24+12+12=72m of tape. Therefore, the minimum amount of tape he will require is 72+72=144m of tape, giving us the correct answer option of C.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
Performances nightly Sun-Fri= Sun, Mon, Tue, Wed, Thurs, Fri=6 days per week. Saturday 7th to 28th of December=3 weeks, so during this time period there would be 6×3=18 nightly performances . However, the theatre is closed on the 25th of December so there are actually 17 nightly performances. There are 2 saturday performances each week, so there would be 2×3=6 saturday performances during the given time period, however both the start and end date are on a saturday, which means there are an extra 2 saturday performances= 8 saturday performances in total. Additionally, theres are afternoon performances on weds, thurs and sat. For weds and thurs during this period this would mean 2×3=6 extra performances, including the afternoon saturday performances this would be 6+4=10 afternoon performances in total. However, the theatre is closed on the 25th which is a Wednesday, so subtract 1 performance away from this number, giving 9 afternoon performances during this period. Altogether, there would be: 17 nightly performances+8 saturday performances+9 afternoon performances=34 performances in total.
A popular option at the Pizza Parlour is the ‘Plus Two’ pizza, which is a basic cheese and tomato pizza plus a choice of any two different additional toppings from the following list:
Tuna Ham Chicken Onion Mushroom Sweetcorn
This gives 15 variations, which can be calculated as follows:
Each of the six additional toppings can be combined with one of the other five to create 30 pairs, but this counts each pair twice, e.g. tuna and ham; ham and tuna.
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
Answer A gives 15 because if 6 teams play the other 5 you would do 6×5=30, but this must be halved to give 15 (because team 1 playing team 2 is equivalent to team 2 playing team 1). Answers B, C and D follow the same principle as answer A. But answer E is different because friend 1 sending a card to friend 2 is not equivalent to friend 2 sending a card to friend 1, therefore the calculation would be 6×5=30 but it would not be necessary to divide 30 by 2.
There is a naive view that the problem of rapid population growth can be effectively solved if enough money is invested in family planning services. But it is no accident that the world’s highest population growth rates are in poverty-stricken sub-Saharan Africa. Child mortality in this region remains stubbornly high, so it makes sense for women to have lots of children to ensure that at least one son survives into their old age. Children are also economic necessities for peasant families engaged in traditional agriculture; in many systems the larger the family, the more land is allocated to it. It follows that only by reducing the demand for large families through economic development can the problem of overpopulation be solved.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
This passage talks around the misconception that problems caused by rapid population growth can be solved with investment in family planning. The argument talks about how child mortality in poverty-stricken areas of sub-Saharan Africa are still high and there is also the exonomic necessity for larger families to help manage agriculture. It also speaks about how the reducing demand for larger families can only be reduced by economic development, then the overpopulation will be solved. Looking at the answer options, A is not addressed in the text, B is again not fully addressed in the text, C is a plausible conclusion from a point raised, however it is based on assumptions. While answer E is a conclusion, it is only partial as it helps to support the main conclusion, which is answer D.
It is clear that telepathy is not possible because, if it were, people would be able to transfer their thoughts to each other for important purposes – for example, passing an examination. But this does not The only supposed demonstrations of telepathy are about trivial matters.
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
The structure of the argument is: X (telepathy) must not be possible because if it was then Y (ability of people to transfer their thoughts to each other) would be possible, which it is not. E mirrors this by having X=existence of intelligent life elsewhere in the universe, Y=possessing evidence of its existence.
For the second year running the Silver Star Prize for art was awarded to a video artist, raising again the big question: What is great art? Many have condemned this year’s choice on the grounds that a documentary-style video film cannot be considered as creative art at all in the way that, say, painting and sculpture can. The Silver Star jury, however, praised the ’emotional force of the work and its complexity beneath an apparently simple surface’. If they are right in this evaluation then clearly video is as much a medium for great art as any other form of expressions.
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
The argument is that video must be as good as any other medium for great art, if the Silver Star jury were accurate in their evaluation, which praised the emotional force and complexity of the video that was the Silver Star prize award winner. For this argument to be valid, it must follow that the jury’s evaluation suggests the video is great art. The jury praised the emotional force and complexity of the video, so it must be these features, according to the argument, that constitute great art. Therefore the answer is A. B is not an assumption as the final sentence of the passage states ‘If they are right…’ when referring to the jury. C is contradicted by the final sentence of the passage, which suggests that the video must in fact be great art if the jury is correct, so the great art must be possible to identify. D is not an assumption as the jury’s evaluation states that the video was ‘simple’. Painting and sculpture are given as examples as forms of creative art but the passage does not indicate that these are the ‘highest forms’ of art, therefore E is not the answer.
An acre of land planted with sugar beet produces 550 gallons of ethanol from the sugar by A car converted to run on E75 (a 75% ethanol, 25% petrol mixture) can do 40 miles per gallon.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
If you drive 20,000 miles at 40 miles per gallon, you need: 20,000/40=500 gallons. 75% of this is ethanol: 500×0.75=375 gallons of ethanol. 550 gallons of ethanol are produced per acre of land, so the number of acres of land needed can be calculated by: 375/550=0.68= answer B.
The following table gives information about five different car models.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
In these types of questions with tabular data, you are often given more data than is needed to answer the question. It is therefore important to clearly read the question and identify the data you need to focus on. Here, to figure out which model will travel furthest on a full tank, you only need to focus on the Fuel tank capacity and maximum fuel economy. The correct answer will be the model that has the highest product when these values are multiplied together. We can quickly rule out options such as the Clipper and Saloon as we can see that these will not give the largest product without having to actually calculate it. From the remaining options, we can see that Ghia has the highest product (70 x 11 =770 miles within a full fuel tank – compared to 750 for the Sedan and 640 of Estate). Therefore the correct answer option is B Ghia.
The table below shows the percentage of adults, grouped by age and socio-economic group, with no natural teeth.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
For A to be drawn, we would need to know the proportion/number of people that fall into each category, which is not given. C can not be drawn because the data can only suggest a correlation; scientific evidence and explanation would be needed to suggest a cause. D similarly cannot be drawn. Like for A, in order to draw E from the data we would need to know the proportion/number of people in the 45-54 yr old manual workers and professional groups. B can be drawn as the percentage of professionals with no natural teeth is less than that for semi-skilled and unskilled manual workers for each age category.
‘Organic food is no healthier than other produce, scientists claim.’ This was the headline in an article published in 2009 in The Independent. It reported that a comprehensive review of 50 years of evidence showed no appreciable difference in nutrient levels between organic and conventional farm If the review is correct shoppers will think twice about buying organic food, especially if the price difference remains significant. Only if people really do receive some health benefit in return for the extra money will the current upward trend in organic sales continue.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
This passage speaks about perceptions of organic food being healthier than conventional farm produce. It speaks about nutrient levels being no difference, yet customers are paying more. It speaks about how customers should only pay more if they are receiving additional health benefits, yet the upward trend in organic sales continues. Looking at the answer options, A is unknown, B is also unknown from the passage. D is again not fully addressed in the passage, and could be said is untrue based on the text, while E covers points and is a valid conclusion, however not the main conclusion, as it supports answer C, which is the main conclusion of the passage.
anon
Medicmind Tutor
Sat, 30 Sep 2023 20:52:29
the question is which is the strongest challenge not which is the main conclusion?
There is widespread dissatisfaction and disillusionment in Britain with politics and with politicians, who are seen as untrustworthy. Many of the electorate do not even bother to vote in a general In Switzerland democracy is more direct than in Britain, in the sense that many referendums take place, and many important political decisions are thus based directly on the votes of citizens rather than on those of their elected representatives. Surveys show that in those parts of Switzerland where more of these important decisions are made by referendum, the citizens are happier than in those areas where there is less opportunity to influence decisions. So if we were to adopt the Swiss system in Britain, the dissatisfied and disillusioned British electorate would be much happier.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
The argument states that if Britain were to adopt the Swiss system of a ‘more direct’ democracy, the British electorate would be happier. The evidence given in support of this argument is that citizens are happier in areas of Switzerland in which decisions are made by referendum, compared to in areas where decisions involve citizen input to a lesser extent. For this argument to be valid, it must follow that these citizens are happier because of the influence they have in decisions, rather than any other factors. Therefore the flaw in the argument is that B must be an assumption.
Sound economics may underlie the Government’s plans to put more prisons under private control, but the privatisation of prisons is nonetheless wrong. Although some countries observe basic human rights, they have the power to take away the liberty of individuals who break certain laws. This power is so far-reaching that only the State itself, acting through its officers, should be entrusted with it. Many prisoners have disturbed backgrounds and a contempt for authority, so exceptional disciplinary measures are needed to maintain order. The power to enforce such measures should not be left to private, profit-making organisations.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
This passage speaks around privitisation of prisons. It speaks around how this is wrong and in some countries do observe basic human rights, yet they are able to take away the liberties of those imprisoned. It speaks about how the power to enforce measures on prisoners should not be done by profit-making organisations that are privately owned. Looking at the answers, A is only a point raised in the text, not a conclusion, C is an assumption based on some points, so not a valid conclusion, D again, is a point raised in the text yet not the main conclusion. E is also true, based on the text, yet is not the main conclusion, it supports answer option B, which reflects the overall nature of the argument.
Last month, in an attempt to improve my fitness, I began to run The maximum distance I have time to fit in on any particular day is 8 miles, but my aim is to maintain an average of at least 5 miles per day.
After 15 days my average was just under 6 miles per day, then the following day I increased my average to just over 6. Since then (for the last 9 days, up to and including today) I have been able to run only 2 miles each day.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
U
Medicmind Tutor
Tue, 25 Jul 2023 15:00:07
Does anyone have an explanation for this?
I have a bird automaton that, when activated, flaps its wings and whistles three different tunes successively, selected at random from its repertoire of It performs one of its ten tunes for 10 seconds, six of them for 15 seconds each and three of them for 20 seconds each.
When my granddaughter visits she is fascinated, activating it again and again as soon as it stops each time. On her last visit she kept it going for a whole hour, and I lost count of how many times she activated it.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
For the bird to be activated the maximum number of times, we want it to play it’s shortest possible combination of 3 songs each repetition. Since there is only one 10 second song, we will use this, and there are six 15 second songs so we can use two of these. So each repeition of 3 songs played would last: 10+15+15=40 seconds. In each minute there are 60 seconds, and there are 60 of these in each hour, so there are 60×60=3600 seconds in 1 hour. So the maximum possible number of times the bird could have been activated is: 3600/40=90 times.
Graham recorded the number of visitors to his shop each day last week and presented the results in the bar chart below:
When he calculated the number of customers per hour he found that he had the same number for five of the days, but the values for Tuesday and Friday were slightly higher. The opening hours of the shop are as follows:
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
Find a proportion for the number of customers per hour on Monday by dividing the number of divisions equal to the height of the bar on the graph for Monday by the number of hours open on Monday: 4/10=0.4 . If the number of customers per hour was the same on Tuesday as Monday, you could calculate the numbers of hours open by dividing the height of the bar graph for Tuesday by 0.4: 3/0.4, which can be done without a calculator by doing 3 divided by 2/5 which is equivalent to 3 x 5/2 = 15/2=7.5 . But the question states that the number of customers per hour was higher on Tuesday and Friday, so on Tuesday the shop must have been open for less than 7.5 hours, eliminate answers A, B, C and D. This means E must be the answer. This can be checked by using a similar method to calculate how many hours the shop could have been open for on Friday: 4/0.4=10, so the shop was open for less than 10 hours on Friday.
Compare and contrast the initial responses of two ‘major world powers’ to the Haitian earthquake Within hours, the USA had sent in hospital and assault ships and an aircraft carrier with 19 helicopters, the 82nd Airborne division with 3,500 troops and hundreds of medical personnel. It put the country’s small airport back on an operational footing. Meanwhile, across the Atlantic, the European Union (EU) geared itself up with a Brussels press conference led by its High Representative. A small group of bored-looking journalists in the Commission’s lavishly appointed press room heard her stumbling through a prepared statement, in which she said that she had conveyed her ‘condolences’ to the UN Secretary-General, and pledged three million Euros in aid. The USA’s willingness to act proves that it is the only genuine superpower.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
The argument is that the USA is the only genuine superpower. The support given for this is the USA’s actions to the Hatian earthquake, which shows the USA’s willingness to act, compared to the less impressive response of the EU. Answer D is a weakness because it suggests that countries of the EU did in fact respond, like the USA did, so it challenges the argument that the USA is the only true superpower.
One of the most catastrophic scenarios that could hit this planet would be a world without fish. Surely this is a matter for the UN to act on – and Areas of ocean should be set aside as no- go zones for trawlers of any nationality, to enable our dwindling fish stocks to have somewhere to reproduce with impunity. We are told that farmed fish is just as good, but this is futile if the wild fish that are fed to the farmed fish disappear. This crisis should be moved right to the top of the global agenda.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
The arguments suggests that the world could be without fish, if the wild fish fed to the farmed fish disappear. This implies that absence of wild fish was cause an absence in farmed fish, which would overall result in no fish remaining. Therefore D is the assumption, as for the argument to be valid the farmed fish must be entirely dependent on the wild fish for food.
Many rich countries protect their farming sectors with generous subsidies. It may be claimed that this policy can benefit countries in which people are starving or malnourished by encouraging farmers to produce more food than can be consumed in their own But the policy is not in the best interests of poorer countries. Poor countries do not want charitable handouts – they want to develop the ability to feed their populations by their own efforts. If the amount spent on the European Commission’s Common Agricultural Policy were invested in, say, irrigation schemes, that would transform the agriculture of many impoverished nations. This would surely be a better way to solve the problem of world hunger.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
The argument is that poor countries should be aided through things like irrigation schemes rather than money so the countries become able to feed their population themselves. Answer A is irrelevant as population growth is not mentioned in the passage. B similarly does not affect the strength of the argument. C strengthens the argument because it gives a disadvantage of rich countries attempting to supply food to poorer countries. D weakens the argument by arguing for subsides. E may also weaken the argument by suggesting that the agricultural improvement argued for in the passage may not work in poor countries.
The graph below shows the additional financial value of repeated applications of fertiliser applied to crops in a field for a year. For example, two applications gives £2,000 more value to the crop than one application.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
For ease of calculation, assume the initial value of the crop with no applications is zero. After 1 application, the cost is 1000 and the additional value of the crop is 500, so the profit would be 500-1000=-500. For 2 applications, the cost is 2000 and the total additional value would be the sum of the additional values after 1 and 2 applications (500+2000)=2500, so the profit would be 2500-2000=500. Use similar calculations to work out the profit for 3 applications: (500+2000+1500)-3000=4000-3000=1000. For 4 applications: (500+2000+1500+500)-4000=4500-4000=500. Therefore the maximum profit would be after 3 applications, because the additional value of crop per application for 4+ applications is below 1000, so the profit would begin to decline per additional application.
There is a half-hourly train service that operates along the Rowbina Valley, between Erd and Leaving Erd at 10 and 40 minutes past each hour, trains stop at Aregon, Lowley, Ergen, Uble and Gidion before arriving at Teovil 51 minutes after departure from Erd. In the opposite direction, trains leave Teovil at 20 and 50 minutes past each hour, arriving at Erd 51 minutes later.
The trains normally average a speed of 60 km/h, but this rises to 80 km/h if they are running late. They stop for three minutes at each station en route, but this is reduced to two minutes when running late.
Yesterday the 10.20 am train from Teovil arrived at Uble on time, but because of a technical fault, remained at Uble for 22 minutes. There were no further delays.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
Until the train reaches Uble, it is still running on time, and therefore it will be travelling the 12km distance between Teovil and Uble at 60km/h. This means that it will take 12 mins to travel between these stations. It will also stop for 3 minutes at Gidion. Therefore, the journey up to Uble will take 12+3 =15mins. It then waits at Uble for 22mins. During the remainder of the journey the train will be running late so it will travel the 24km from Uble to Erd at 80km/h. This means that the train will cover the distance in 18 minutes. It will also wait for 2 minutes at Ergen, Lowly and Aregon, which is an additional 6 minutes. So overall it will take 15mins+22mins+18mins+6mins = 61 minutes. Since the train would usually travel from Teovil to Erd in 51 mins, this means that it will be 10 minutes late once it arrives at Erd. The right answer is therefore C.
The diagram below shows a view of a church from above:
There are three windows facing south, two windows facing north and a stained glass window facing east. The only doors are one in the westernmost end and one in a north-facing wall.
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
A and B are not correct because they contradict the description that only doors are on the westernmost end of the church. C is incorrect because the description states that there are 3 south-facing windows, whereas in the picture there are only 2. D is incorrect because when viewing from the South the longer horizontal part of the church would be on the left, like in diagram C. Therefore E is the correct answer.
The criminal law, armed only with punishment, is only ever capable of controlling a tiny minority of Communities can exert control over the behaviour of most people in much more positive ways: through the disapproval of one’s neighbours and fellow citizens and through a whole host of accepted social attitudes. Mass unemployment creates a large class of people who reject these attitudes and who are prepared to encourage, or at least tolerate, illegal ways of making a living, and hence has a profoundly subversive effect on society.
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
This passage speaks about how criminal behaviour is not tolerated by the masses, due to disapproval from fellow citizens, yet when there is mass unemployment there is a situation where the masses reject the previous attitudes and leads to encouragement or at least tolerance for criminal activity. Looking at the answer options, B is unknown, C is a point raised in the text, not the main conclusion, D is an assumption from the text, yet again not the main conclusion and E is true, yet again, is a point raised in the text that supports the main conclusion that is A. Using the therefore method, answer option A is the main conclusion that best expresses the argument.
Our football team always loses the match if it’s They won last Saturday, so it can’t have been raining.
Explanation
The correct answer is D.
The reasoning given: X (our football team loses) always happens if Y(it rains) happens. X didn’t happen, so Y couldn’t have happened. For answer D, X= David enjoys the film, Y=the film has a big star in it.
When you have finished your meal at a restaurant and you get the bill, there is often a note at the bottom pointing out that the service charge is not included. This can easily lead to one of two reactions – leaving a tip because you feel it is what is expected, or not leaving a tip out of annoyance at the unsubtle request for more money. Neither of these is an appropriate response. The tip is a reward for providing good We should be rewarding those waiters who perform well and not just issuing tips as a matter of course.
Explanation
The correct answer is C.
When travelling in Kromistan and not understanding the currency, I offered a red note for an item marked ‘135K’. I was given, in change, three green coins and one blue Later, for a newspaper marked ’33K’, I offered a handful of coins and the vendor took four green and one blue. There are only these three denominations of money available; the smallest is marked ‘1K’ and each higher denomination is a whole number multiple of the lower denominations.
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
Form the following simultaneous equations from the information given using the first letter of the colours given: R-135=3G+B and 33=4G+B. We want to eliminate B because the answer refers to green and red but not blue. So, rearrange the second equation to get B: B=33-4G.Then substitute this equation for B in the first equation to get: R-135=3G+33-4G, which can be manipulated to give R-135=33-4G. We want to make R the subject so rearrange: R=168-4G. But B=33-4G, so rearranging these both these equations so -4G is the subject and equating them gives: B-33=168-R. Using these equations, we know that R is greater than B.
Get answers quickly
Medicmind Tutor
Sun, 12 Jun 2022 09:11:12
We know smallest one is 1 and r must be the largest, either g or b could be 1. Sub g= 1 will not get the answer. Sub b =1, then 33= 4g -1, g=8. r then = 160. 160/8 = 20 = Ans B
At committee meetings of the Massing Social Club motions are carried or defeated by a simple majority, abstentions being ignored.
At the last meeting a proposal to install a satellite dish was defeated by 8 votes to 5 with 10 committee members abstaining. However, because of the large number of abstentions it was decided that the matter should be discussed further at the next meeting and a vote taken again.
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
If we want the minimum number of changes, ignore the abstentions and instead change as few people voting against the satellite dish to voting for. If you take 2 people from the 8 who voted against it would leave 6 voting against. If these 2 people then decided to vote for the satellite dish, you would get a total of 7 people voting for, which exceeds the 6 people who are now voting against. Hence the results have been reversed (the majority are now voting for) by 2 people changing their mind.
The housing estate on which Andrew lives has streets of variable In each street the houses are directly opposite each other, with the same number of houses on each side. However, the numbering of the houses is inconsistent.
Some streets are numbered consecutively on each side, starting at one end of the street, going up to the end and then back down the other side.
Other streets have the odd numbers on one side, starting from 1, and the evens on the other side, starting with 2 at the same end.
Andrew’s friend Amy lives on the same estate at 25 Acacia Avenue, which is not the end house in the street.
Explanation
The correct answer is E.
A. and B. are incorrect, because the only way Andrew may potentially be able to calculate the number of houses in the street by knowing Amy and the opposite house’s number is if they are numbered along the street consecutively which would be starting at one end, and then going right up to the end and back down the other side of the street. The case of Andrew figuring out the number of houses in the street cannot be possible if the houses are odd numbered on one side and have even numbers on the other, therefore he cannot calculate how many houses would have a bigger house number than Amy’s.
If the house opposite Amy’s is 26, this means that the house numbers are even on one side but odd on the other, consequently he cannot work out how many houses there are. This could only happen if the opposite house was not 26. Likewise, if the houses are odd numbered on one side and even on the other, Andrew will still not be able to figure out the number of houses on the street if he is aware of the numbers either side of Amy’s house.
Andrew can work out the numbers of the houses either side of Amy’s:
• The number of the house opposite Amy’s house, if it is 26, then it is clear the house numbers are odd one side and even on the other. For this reason the houses on either side of Amy’s house will be numbered 23 and 27.
• If the house opposite Amy’s is not 26, this means that the houses must be numbered consecutively, s the houses either side of Amy are numbered 24 and 26.
2013 S1 Review Screen
Instructions
Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.
The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:
1. Review all of your questions and answers.
2. Review questions that are incomplete.
3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)
You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.
2013 S1 Section
Final Answer Review Screen
Instructions
This review section allows you to view the answers you made and see whether they were correct or not. Each question accessed from this screen has an 'Explain Answer' button in the top left hand side. By clicking on this you will obtain an explanation as to the correct answer.
At the bottom of this screen you can choose to 'Review All' answers, 'Review Incorrect' answers or 'Review Flagged' answers. Alternatively you can go to specific questions by opening up any of the sub-tests below.
2013 S1 Section
TI-108
Let's get acquainted ?
What is your name?
Nice to meet you, {{name}}!
What is your preferred e-mail address?
Nice to meet you, {{name}}!
What is your preferred phone number?
What is your preferred phone number?
Just to check, what are you interested in?
When should we call you?
What time works best for you? (UK Time)
How many hours of 1-1 tutoring are you looking for?
My WhatsApp number is...
For our safeguarding policy, please confirm...
For our safeguarding policy, please confirm...
Which online course are you interested in?
What is your query?
SubmitYou can apply for a bursary by clicking this link
https://www.medicmind.co.uk/medic-mind-foundation/Sure, what is your query?
SubmitLoading...
Thank you for your response.
We will aim to get back to you within 12-24 hours.
Lock in a 2 Hour 1-1 Tutoring Lesson Now
If you're ready and keen to get started click the button below to book your first 2 hour 1-1 tutoring lesson with us. Connect with a tutor from a university of your choice in minutes. (Use FAST5 to get 5% Off!)
Buy Now for £70