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BMAT 2003S1 
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This section is Section 1 of 3.
Speed as well as accuracy is important in this section. Work quickly, or you might not finish the paper. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only marks for correct answers, so you should attempt all 35 questions. Each question is worth one mark.
You must complete the answers within the time limit. Calculators are NOT permitted.
Good Luck!
Note – if press “End Exam” you can access full worked solutions for all past paper questions
A farmer has an underground water tank which he decided to calibrate by adding known volumes of water and measuring the depth using a dipstick. His calibration graph is shown The horizontal cross section of the tank is circular at all points.
The correct answer is E.
Initially, the gradient of the graph is increasing, which means there is an increasingly greater change in depth per unit change in volume. This means the width of the tank must be decreasing from the bottom. The gradient of the graph then decreases as we fill to the the top of the tank, which means there is a smaller change in depth per unit change in volume, so the tank must be getting narrower. Only E shows the tank getting narrower and then wider (from bottom to top), so this must be the answer.
“Ready meals” should be labelled with health warnings in the same way as cigarettes There has been a big rise in the number of ready meals being sold by the supermarkets. These meals are quick and easy to use, but they tend to have high levels of salt, fat and preservatives in them, which are not good for our long term health.
The correct answer is C.
The passage concludes that ‘“Ready meals” should be labelled with health warnings,’ as they ‘tend to have high levels of salt, fat and preservatives in them, which are not good for our long term health.’
Statement C strengthens the conclusion of the passage as it states that people who buy ready made meals are unaware of their unhealthy properties, thus supporting
labelling such foods with health warnings.
Statements A, B, D & E are not explicitly mentioned and are therefore irrelevant to the argument.
A survey has been carried out of the methods of transport to school used by pupils. The results, broken down by year group, are shown below.

Year 7  Year 8  Year 9  Year 10  Year 11  Total 
Car  30  33  16  18  10 
102 
Bus 
14  16  13  15  18  76 
Bicycle  5  12  23  25  30 
95 
Walk 
101  89  100  92  108  490 
Total  150  145  152  150  166 
763 
One of the individual entries in the above table has been typed incorrectly, although the marginal totals are correct.
The correct answer is B.
Use the process of elimination of the answers AE given. For answer A, check that the two totals involving the number 14 are correct: 30+14+5+101=150, therefore all of these values (in the first column of the table) are correct. Now check the row involving the number 14: 14+16+13+15+18=76, so all values in this row must be correct. Use the same method to determine whether B (33) is correct. Horizontally: 33+30+16+18+10=107, but the total for this column given is 102, therefore one of the values in this column must be incorrect. To check whether the incorrect value is 33, find the total of the column containing 33: 33+16+12+89=150, but the total given is 145, therefore 33 is the incorrect value.
The UK government wishes to increase the number of young people from poorer families entering university However, it has recently changed the way in which it provides financial support for students. Whereas it used to provide grants that the student did not need to repay, it now provides loans that the student must repay when he or she enters employment. Research shows that students from poorer families are more likely to be deterred from going to university by the prospect of debt.
The correct answer is C.
The passage concludes by saying that ultimately ‘students from poorer families are more likely to be deterred from going to university by the prospect of debt.’ Therefore it can be inferred that students from richer families are less likely to be deterred from going to university compared to students from poorer families. This is summarised in statement C.
Statement A is incorrect because there is no mention of how poorer families would be ‘less interested’ in going to university based on the increase in debt that would have to be repaid.
Statement B is incorrect because there is no mention of how universities are less willing to help meet government targets.
Statement D is incorrect as the final sentence implies that students from poorer families are more likely to be affected rather than all students being deterred equally.
Statement E is also incorrect because there is no mention of maintenance grants specifically, just simply grants in general.
A gardener decides to lay out his cabbage patch as a square grid. He has a lot of cabbages so cannot be bothered to count them, but lays them out on the ground. On completing his square, he finds he has 9 left over. He then lays them out again with one extra cabbage on each side of the He then finds that he is 12 cabbages short.
The correct answer is C.
Use the answers AD provided. If you subtract 9 from the number of cabbages he has, you must have a square number; similarly if you add 12 to the same number, you must also get a square number. So, try this for each of the options given until you find a suitable answer. For A: 99=0, but we know that the farmer did not start with 0 cabbages, so eliminate A. For B: 1099=100, which is a square number; 109+12=121, which is also a square number. Therefore the answer is C.
A proposal to counteract low turnout by voters in elections is to introduce the option of voting via the Internet. There are a number of practical issues (such as loss of secrecy, fear of abuse of the system) which mean the proposal would have to be carefully controlled. It may be undemocratic by favouring some political parties more than others. Those parties whose voters tend to be young and better educated would be likely to gain more votes than other.
The correct answer is D.
The conclusion here is internet voting might be undemocratic and lead to certain political parties being favoured over others. Political parties and sections of societies are synonymous to each other. This statement is paraphrased in statement D.
The table below shows statistics for consultations by family doctors in the country of Santesia for the years 1995 and 2000. Santesia has a population of approximately 10 million and there are 5000 family doctors (these figures have not changed significantly over the five years between the two surveys).

1995  2000 
Average number of surgery sessions a week  8.5 
8.4 
Average length of a surgery session (min) 
140  165 
Average length of a consultation (min:sec)  9:59 
10:00 
Average time spent on home visits a week (min) 
408  412 
Average length of a home visit (min)  25.5 
25.0 
Average number of patients seen per week 
135 
155 
The correct answer is A.
On average, a surgery session is 140 minutes long, with consultation each lasting 9:59 minutes, which can be rounded to 10 minutes. So the number of consultations (=the number of patients seen) in a surgery session would be: 140/10=14 patients.
The table below shows statistics for consultations by family doctors in the country of Santesia for the years 1995 and 2000. Santesia has a population of approximately 10 million and there are 5000 family doctors (these figures have not changed significantly over the five years between the two surveys).

1995  2000 
Average number of surgery sessions a week  8.5 
8.4 
Average length of a surgery session (min) 
140  165 
Average length of a consultation (min:sec)  9:59 
10:00 
Average time spent on home visits a week (min) 
408  412 
Average length of a home visit (min)  25.5 
25.0 
Average number of patients seen per week 
135 
155 
The correct answer is C (27).
The question again refers to values in the 1995 column. The length of time spent on surgery sessions per week is given by the number of surgery sessions per week multiplied by the average length of a surgery session: 140×8.5 =1190 minutes. The average time spent on home visits per week is given as 408. So in total 408+1190=1598 minutes was spent per week on average on surgery and home visits. To convert this into hours: 1598/60=26.63, which can be rounded to 27 as the nearest hour.
The table below shows statistics for consultations by family doctors in the country of Santesia for the years 1995 and 2000. Santesia has a population of approximately 10 million and there are 5000 family doctors (these figures have not changed significantly over the five years between the two surveys).

1995  2000 
Average number of surgery sessions a week  8.5 
8.4 
Average length of a surgery session (min) 
140  165 
Average length of a consultation (min:sec)  9:59 
10:00 
Average time spent on home visits a week (min) 
408  412 
Average length of a home visit (min)  25.5 
25.0 
Average number of patients seen per week 
135 
155 
The correct answer is C.
The total number of patients seen in 2000 can be given by the average number of patients seen per week multiplied by the number of weeks per year that doctors work: 155×50=7750 patients. The number of patients per doctor on average would be the population divided by the number of doctors: 10000000/5000=2000. So the average patient saw their doctor: 7750/2000=3.875 times, which can be rounded to 4 times.
The table below shows statistics for consultations by family doctors in the country of Santesia for the years 1995 and 2000. Santesia has a population of approximately 10 million and there are 5000 family doctors (these figures have not changed significantly over the five years between the two surveys).

1995  2000 
Average number of surgery sessions a week  8.5 
8.4 
Average length of a surgery session (min) 
140  165 
Average length of a consultation (min:sec)  9:59 
10:00 
Average time spent on home visits a week (min) 
408  412 
Average length of a home visit (min)  25.5 
25.0 
Average number of patients seen per week 
135 
155 
The correct answer is D.
If the number of doctors is cut but the number of consultations stay the same, the patients that were previously seen by the 500 doctors that are no longer working would have to be seen by the 4500 remaining doctors (in addition to their original patients), which means the doctors would have to work for longer on average (in order to see more people). This means we can eliminate AC because they give lengths of time less than the average length of a surgery session in 2000, when we know this actually needs to be more.
There are 500 fewer doctors whose consultations need to be shared between the remaining 4500 doctors, so that means on average each of the doctors remaining will get 500/4500=1/9th of an extra consultation. So the average length of a doctors surgery would increase by 1/9th: (10/9)x165=183.3. So the answer is D
The table below shows statistics for consultations by family doctors in the country of Santesia for the years 1995 and 2000. Santesia has a population of approximately 10 million and there are 5000 family doctors (these figures have not changed significantly over the five years between the two surveys).

1995  2000 
Average number of surgery sessions a week  8.5 
8.4 
Average length of a surgery session (min) 
140  165 
Average length of a consultation (min:sec)  9:59 
10:00 
Average time spent on home visits a week (min) 
408  412 
Average length of a home visit (min)  25.5 
25.0 
Average number of patients seen per week 
135 
155 
The correct answer is A.
Find the fraction of the values given of the value in 2000 over the value in 1995 for each of the options AC, and then do the reciprocal of this to check D. The largest value is the answer. A: 165/140=1.18. B: 10/9.59=1.04. C: 412/408=1.01. D: 25.5/25=1.02. Therefore A is the answer.
The table below shows statistics for consultations by family doctors in the country of Santesia for the years 1995 and 2000. Santesia has a population of approximately 10 million and there are 5000 family doctors (these figures have not changed significantly over the five years between the two surveys).

1995  2000 
Average number of surgery sessions a week  8.5 
8.4 
Average length of a surgery session (min) 
140  165 
Average length of a consultation (min:sec)  9:59 
10:00 
Average time spent on home visits a week (min) 
408  412 
Average length of a home visit (min)  25.5 
25.0 
Average number of patients seen per week 
135 
155 
The correct answer is A.
The average number of patients seen per week in home visits in 1995 is: 408/25.5=16, so eliminate graphs D and C because they show the value to be more than this. The height of the bar charts for home visits in 2000 is the same in graphs A and B, so it would be a waste of time calculating this figure. The number of patients seen in surgery per week in 2000 is given by: 165/10×8.4=138.6, which is shown on graph A but not B.
A commuter bus taking people home from work loads up in town and then stops at various places on its way to the edge of town. Nobody gets on the bus after the place where it loads up, but 1/3 of the people on the bus get off at the first stop and at each subsequent stop up to the fourth, where the last 8 people get off.
The correct answer is B.
Use trial by error for this question, by inputting the options AD given until you find one that works. For A: at the first stop 18(18/3)=12, at the second stop 12(12/3)=8, but the question states that a third of the remaining people also get off at the third stop, but 8 people cannot be divided by 3, so A is not the answer. For B: 27(27/3)=18, 18(18/3)=12, 12(12/3)=8, and at the final stop the remaining 8 people get off, so there were 27 people on the bus initially and B is correct.
While the Internet brings undoubted advantages to young people, the effects of excessive use are serious. Some teenagers are spending as much as 8 hours per day using the Internet. Isolation and obesity are increasing amongst children. Parents must enforce stricter controls over their children, to make sure that the Internet is not causing their children to have long term physical and emotional ill health.
The correct answer is E.
Twelve teams will take part in the Pitchball World Cup next month. They will compete in two pools of six. Every team will play two matches against each of the other teams in the same pool and one match against each team in the other pool. The winners of each pool will then contest the final.
The correct answer is C.
Each team will play two matches against the 5 other teams in its pool, and since there are 6 teams in each pool the number of intrapool matches played would be: 6x5x2=60 matches. Each team also plays 1 match against each team in the other pool: 6×6=36. Not to forget, the winners of each pool will play each other in the final, which gives 1 additional match. Altogether the number of matches played would be: 60+36+1=97 matches.
In the graphs below, the x and y scales are identical, and the same for each graph. On which one does the shaded area correctly represent the conditions:
The correct answer is C.
For 0<y<5, the shaded area would be between the two horizontal lines traversing the values 0 and 5 on the yaxis, so E can be eliminated because the shaded area shows no upper bound on the yaxis. For y>2x, we know that the line y=2x must have a gradient 2 times greater than the line y=x, therefore B and D can also be eliminated because the gradients of their diagonal lines are less than this. This leaves A and C, but because the value of y must be greater than 2x, the shaded area must be above the line y=2x, therefore the answer is C.
On a particular experimental farm, it is found that the number of nematode worms per cubic metre in the soil tends to be greater when there is a lower concentration of fertiliser residues in the soil.
The correct answer is B.
There are 15 entries for the BMAT from a sixthform college. Three of the candidates are taking biology, chemistry, mathematics and physics; the remainder are taking three out of these four subjects. All 15 candidates are taking chemistry and 13 of them are taking biology. There are 9 girls.
The correct answer is B(5).
We know that 3 candidates are taking maths and physics because these 3 are taking all 4 subjects. All 15 candidates are taking chemistry and 13 of them are taking biology, but we can exclude the 3 students we know are taking all 4 subjects, leaving us with 10 candidates taking both biology and chemistry. We know that these 10 only have 1 subject left to choose from, so they cannot be taking both maths and physics. However the remaining 5 people could be. Since there are only 9 girls, all of these 5 people could be boys, therefore the answer is 5.
At the end of daylight saving time, when clocks should be put back one hour, Julie puts hers forward one hour by mistake. Her friend Clare completely forgets about it and leaves hers unchanged. They had arranged to meet at 11 am the following day.
The correct answer is D.
Julie puts her clock forward by 1 hour, when she should have put it 1 hour back, so she will be 2 hours ahead of the actual time. Clare leaves her clock the same instead of moving it an hour back, so she will be 1 hour ahead of the actual time. This means that Julie will arrive 1 hour before Clare, stated by D.
It has been shown that men are much less likely to use preventive medical care than women: men tend to wait for a crisis before seeking help, whereas women are quick to consult a doctor when they have only minor symptoms. The effect of this is that doctors are seeing men with advanced conditions which are more difficult – and expensive – to treat. Time and money spent on persuading men to seek advice at an earlier stage would easily be offset by savings on treating advanced conditions.
The correct answer is B.
The argument here is that late consultation in men with more advanced conditions leads to their treatments being more expensive and difficult to treat. Therefore, men should seek medical advice at earlier stages to prevent this. However, the argument is weakened if early consultation for minor symptoms leads to high costs too.
A cheetah’s top speed is 110 km/h and that of a zebra is 60 km/h. If both are running at top speed in a straight line and the cheetah is 100 m behind, how many seconds will it take the cheetah to catch the zebra?
The correct answer is B.
The cheetah is 10060=50km/h faster than the zebra. Converting the distance to km, the time taken for the cheetah to catch the zebra would be: 0.1/50=0.002 hours. This is equal to 0.002x60x60=7.2 seconds.
On a Roman archaeological site, three coins were found with dates corresponding to 88, 123 and 157 AD. The coins were mixed with other Roman debris so must have entered the site during Roman occupation.
The correct answer is E.
The passage only gives us information that the coins were found amongst Roman debris. Given the dates of the three coins, we can assume that they were abandoned in or after 157 AD. Given their date stamps, we are assuming that they could have been used up until 157 AD.
Gardeners are being encouraged to use alternatives to peat, as peat harvesting endangers the wetland habitats of wading birds. But gardening has become the most popular hobby in the UK, with thousands of people visiting garden centres to buy – among other things – peatbased compost. The habitats of wading birds will therefore inevitably decline if gardening continues to be so popular.
The correct answer is B.
The conclusion here is that the habitats of wading birds will inevitably decline and this is due to peat. However, we are assuming that although there are alternatives to peat, gardeners will keep using peat.
The Ruritanian Institute for Economic Studies has totalled up the effects of the Ruritanian Finance Minister’s six budgets prior to April 2003. Its calculations suggest that tax and benefit measures introduced by the Finance Minister have resulted in the redistribution of income from the better off to less well off. A lone parent, for example, is on average $24 better off in today’s money as a result of the Finance Minister’s measures – an 11% gain.
Chart 2 shows trends in the ‘FairE coefficient’ since 1982.
The FairE coefficient is a number between zero and one that measures the degree of inequality in the distribution of income in a given society. The coefficient would register zero inequality for a society in which each member received exactly the same income and it would register a coefficient of 1.0 if one member got all the income and the rest got nothing. In practice, coefficient values range from around 0.2 for, e.g., the Slovak and Czech republics and Poland, to around 0.6 for places like Mexico, Guatemala, Honduras and Panama where powerful elites dominate the economy. The coefficient is particularly useful to show trends. It reveals the change towards greater equality in Cuba from 1953 to 1986 (0.55 to 0.22) and the growth of inequality in the USA in the last three decades when the FairE went from 0.35 in the 1970s to 0.40 in the 1990s (and still rising).
Assuming that the information and coefficient above are valid:
The correct answer is C.
The argument is that it is vital to reduce alcohol consumption, by introducing a minimum price per unit and banning advertising, in order to reduce the harm caused by it.
A suggests that almost half of the alcohol in the UK is consumed by just 10% of the population, which neither strengthens nor weakens the argument.
B indicates that falling alcohol prices leads to greater alcohol consumption, which suggests the reverse (increasing price leads to less consumption) is also true. This strengthens the argument of introducing a minimum price per unit to reduce alcohol consumption.
C and D do not strengthen the argument.
The Ruritanian Institute for Economic Studies has totalled up the effects of the Ruritanian Finance Minister’s six budgets prior to April 2003. Its calculations suggest that tax and benefit measures introduced by the Finance Minister have resulted in the redistribution of income from the better off to less well off. A lone parent, for example, is on average $24 better off in today’s money as a result of the Finance Minister’s measures – an 11% gain.
Chart 2 shows trends in the ‘FairE coefficient’ since 1982.
The FairE coefficient is a number between zero and one that measures the degree of inequality in the distribution of income in a given society. The coefficient would register zero inequality for a society in which each member received exactly the same income and it would register a coefficient of 1.0 if one member got all the income and the rest got nothing. In practice, coefficient values range from around 0.2 for, e.g., the Slovak and Czech republics and Poland, to around 0.6 for places like Mexico, Guatemala, Honduras and Panama where powerful elites dominate the economy. The coefficient is particularly useful to show trends. It reveals the change towards greater equality in Cuba from 1953 to 1986 (0.55 to 0.22) and the growth of inequality in the USA in the last three decades when the FairE went from 0.35 in the 1970s to 0.40 in the 1990s (and still rising).
Assuming that the information and coefficient above are valid:
The correct answer is D.
The Ruritanian Institute for Economic Studies has totalled up the effects of the Ruritanian Finance Minister’s six budgets prior to April 2003. Its calculations suggest that tax and benefit measures introduced by the Finance Minister have resulted in the redistribution of income from the better off to less well off. A lone parent, for example, is on average $24 better off in today’s money as a result of the Finance Minister’s measures – an 11% gain.
Chart 2 shows trends in the ‘FairE coefficient’ since 1982.
The FairE coefficient is a number between zero and one that measures the degree of inequality in the distribution of income in a given society. The coefficient would register zero inequality for a society in which each member received exactly the same income and it would register a coefficient of 1.0 if one member got all the income and the rest got nothing. In practice, coefficient values range from around 0.2 for, e.g., the Slovak and Czech republics and Poland, to around 0.6 for places like Mexico, Guatemala, Honduras and Panama where powerful elites dominate the economy. The coefficient is particularly useful to show trends. It reveals the change towards greater equality in Cuba from 1953 to 1986 (0.55 to 0.22) and the growth of inequality in the USA in the last three decades when the FairE went from 0.35 in the 1970s to 0.40 in the 1990s (and still rising).
Assuming that the information and coefficient above are valid:
1. Many of the new benefits are meanstested and complicated, with the result that $4.5 billionworth are going unclaimed.
2. According to the Ruritanian Ministry of Finance, the number of people paying toprate income tax rose from 2.1 million to 3.2 million.
3. Since 199697 there has been a surge in the number of high earners.
The correct answer is E.
P will contact the face opposite 3, which is 93=6. Q will contact the face opposite 1 which is 91=8. R will contact the face opposite 2 which is 92=7. Then S will contact face 1.
The Ruritanian Institute for Economic Studies has totalled up the effects of the Ruritanian Finance Minister’s six budgets prior to April 2003. Its calculations suggest that tax and benefit measures introduced by the Finance Minister have resulted in the redistribution of income from the better off to less well off. A lone parent, for example, is on average $24 better off in today’s money as a result of the Finance Minister’s measures – an 11% gain.
Chart 2 shows trends in the ‘FairE coefficient’ since 1982.
The FairE coefficient is a number between zero and one that measures the degree of inequality in the distribution of income in a given society. The coefficient would register zero inequality for a society in which each member received exactly the same income and it would register a coefficient of 1.0 if one member got all the income and the rest got nothing. In practice, coefficient values range from around 0.2 for, e.g., the Slovak and Czech republics and Poland, to around 0.6 for places like Mexico, Guatemala, Honduras and Panama where powerful elites dominate the economy. The coefficient is particularly useful to show trends. It reveals the change towards greater equality in Cuba from 1953 to 1986 (0.55 to 0.22) and the growth of inequality in the USA in the last three decades when the FairE went from 0.35 in the 1970s to 0.40 in the 1990s (and still rising).
Assuming that the information and coefficient above are valid:
The correct answer is C.
At 11 years old, the children of parents who smoke are shorter on average than the children of parents who do not smoke. Therefore, parental smoking tends to reduce the growth rate of children up to 11 years old.
The correct answer is B.
The paragraph assumes that parental smoking in children up to the age of 11 years old is the root cause for reduced growth rates. However, this is incorrect because it does not account for other factors that may be causing shorter heights in children up to the age of 11 years old.
Julie has a bag of sweets which are red, blue and yellow. She invites Amanda to choose one. The probability of Amanda choosing a red sweet is 30%, and the probability of her choosing a blue one is twice the probability of her choosing a yellow one.
The correct answer is E.
A, C and D cannot be the answer because 30% of 7, of 14 and of 21 (which should be the quantity of red sweets) are not whole numbers. B cannot be the answer because the number of red sweets would be 10×0.3=3, leaving 7 sweets which could be blue or yellow, but there are twice as many blue sweets as yellow sweets, and 7 cannot be split in this way (ie 7 cannot be divided by 3). Therefore E must be the answer.
Doctors in Great Britain can work for the public health service, a commercial service, or both. 30% of doctors in Great Britain work, at least some of the time, for the commercial sector. On the basis of this information alone, deduce which of the following statements are true of doctors in Great Britain.
1. Some doctors work only in the public health service.
2. More doctors work in the public health service than the commercial sector.
3. Some doctors spend more time on commercial work than in the public health service.
The correct answer is C.
Only 30% of doctors work in the commercial sector, therefore, 70% doctors must work for the public health service only, because every doctor must work either in the public health or commercial sector or both. Therefore statement 1 must be true. Because at least 70% of doctors work for the public health service but only 30% of doctors work in the commercial sector, statement 2 is also true. Statement 3 cannot be deduced, because the passage does not indicate the length of time spent working. So statements 1 and 2 only are correct.
Which two of these statements are equivalent?
The correct answer is A & C.
According to A, Anne must be younger than or the same age as Susan, therefore Susan must be the same age as or older than Anne. C reiterates this
Recent threats of terrorism in the UK have resulted in fear of air travel, and consequently more people are taking holidays in domestic resorts than abroad. The consequences for road planning, car parking and the rail network are immense, and travel agents risk going out of business. The government must act quickly to plan for these changes in holiday patterns.
The correct answer is E.
The conclusion here is that the government must act quickly to plan for these changes in holiday patterns. We have to ask ourselves, why is the author arguing for this? It is because they think that it will lead to longterm impacts and so we are assuming it will be more than a shortterm problem.
Just four horses start in the 3:15 race, a short sprint. They are: Arctic Ape, Bistro, Crackdown and Drumbeat. At the first turn Bistro is ahead of Drumbeat and Crackdown is ahead of Arctic Ape, but nothing more specific is known. By the half way mark the only change is that Drumbeat has dropped back one place. Then, in the last furlong, Bistro moves up one place and that is how they finish.
The correct answer is D.
Refer to Arctic Ape, Bistro, Crackdown and Drumbeat as A, B C and D respectively. At the first turn, B is ahead of D and C is ahead of A, which can be written as: D>B and A>C. By halfway D has dropped back one place, which means D could not have been last at the first turn, so at the first turn A must have been last, but has now been replaced by D. In the last furlong, B moves up one place, which means B could not have been first by the halfway mark, so B must have been 2nd at the halfway mark. Because D was initially behind B and A behind C, B must have overtaken C when he moved up one place. This means B finished first, followed by C, then A, then D.
A food supplement is diluted from concentrate by adding 8 parts water to 1 part concentrate. By mistake, Jean added 400 cm³ water to 40 cm³^{ }concentrate.
The correct answer is C.
The ratio of water to concentrate Jean has is 400:40=10:1. Because she wants a ratio of 8:1, that means she needs less water or more concentrate, so eliminate answers A and B. To calculate the total volume of concentrate needed to go with 400cm3 of water in a 8:1 ratio: 40×10/8=400/8=50cm3. As Jean already has 40cm3 of concentrate, she would need to add 5040=10cm3 more concentrate to change the ratio of water:concentrate to 8:1.
Figure 1 shows the number of births and deaths recorded during each year, over a tenyear period on an island. The total population at the start of the tenyear period was 100 000 people.
The correct answer is C.
The change in the population size each year is equal to the number of births minus the number of deaths for that year. As in years 15 the number of deaths exceeds the number of births each year, the population size will be decreasing (the bars will be getting smaller) from years 15. So eliminate A, B, D and E because these graphs do not show this. From years 610, the number of births exceeds the number of deaths each year, so the population size will be increasing. This is shown by graph C.
The dates of two of the battles supposedly fought by the semilegendary King Arthur have caused confusion because there are inconsistencies in the early manuscripts.
The Welsh Annals give the Battle of Badon as “year 72” and the Battle of Camlann as “year 93”. They also record the death of King Maelgwn of Gwynedd as “year 103”. There is definite evidence from the calculation of the dates of Easter that “year 9” in the Welsh Annals coincides with 455 AD in our modern dating system.
The dark age historian, Gildas, records these battles without any mention of Arthur. Records indicate that Gildas was born in the year of the battle of Badon and wrote his book “On the Ruin and Conquest of Britain” when he was 43.
However, Maelgwn was still alive when Gildas wrote his book, which is inconsistent with the other dates given by Gildas and the Welsh Annals.
The correct answer is B.
The dates of two of the battles supposedly fought by the semilegendary King Arthur have caused confusion because there are inconsistencies in the early manuscripts.
The Welsh Annals give the Battle of Badon as “year 72” and the Battle of Camlann as “year 93”. They also record the death of King Maelgwn of Gwynedd as “year 103”. There is definite evidence from the calculation of the dates of Easter that “year 9” in the Welsh Annals coincides with 455 AD in our modern dating system.
The dark age historian, Gildas, records these battles without any mention of Arthur. Records indicate that Gildas was born in the year of the battle of Badon and wrote his book “On the Ruin and Conquest of Britain” when he was 43.
However, Maelgwn was still alive when Gildas wrote his book, which is inconsistent with the other dates given by Gildas and the Welsh Annals.
The correct answer is C.
The dates of two of the battles supposedly fought by the semilegendary King Arthur have caused confusion because there are inconsistencies in the early manuscripts.
The Welsh Annals give the Battle of Badon as “year 72” and the Battle of Camlann as “year 93”. They also record the death of King Maelgwn of Gwynedd as “year 103”. There is definite evidence from the calculation of the dates of Easter that “year 9” in the Welsh Annals coincides with 455 AD in our modern dating system.
The dark age historian, Gildas, records these battles without any mention of Arthur. Records indicate that Gildas was born in the year of the battle of Badon and wrote his book “On the Ruin and Conquest of Britain” when he was 43.
However, Maelgwn was still alive when Gildas wrote his book, which is inconsistent with the other dates given by Gildas and the Welsh Annals.
The correct answer is B.
The dates of two of the battles supposedly fought by the semilegendary King Arthur have caused confusion because there are inconsistencies in the early manuscripts.
The Welsh Annals give the Battle of Badon as “year 72” and the Battle of Camlann as “year 93”. They also record the death of King Maelgwn of Gwynedd as “year 103”. There is definite evidence from the calculation of the dates of Easter that “year 9” in the Welsh Annals coincides with 455 AD in our modern dating system.
The dark age historian, Gildas, records these battles without any mention of Arthur. Records indicate that Gildas was born in the year of the battle of Badon and wrote his book “On the Ruin and Conquest of Britain” when he was 43.
However, Maelgwn was still alive when Gildas wrote his book, which is inconsistent with the other dates given by Gildas and the Welsh Annals.
The correct answer is B.
The dates of two of the battles supposedly fought by the semilegendary King Arthur have caused confusion because there are inconsistencies in the early manuscripts.
The Welsh Annals give the Battle of Badon as “year 72” and the Battle of Camlann as “year 93”. They also record the death of King Maelgwn of Gwynedd as “year 103”. There is definite evidence from the calculation of the dates of Easter that “year 9” in the Welsh Annals coincides with 455 AD in our modern dating system.
The dark age historian, Gildas, records these battles without any mention of Arthur. Records indicate that Gildas was born in the year of the battle of Badon and wrote his book “On the Ruin and Conquest of Britain” when he was 43.
However, Maelgwn was still alive when Gildas wrote his book, which is inconsistent with the other dates given by Gildas and the Welsh Annals.
The correct answer is C.
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