This section is Section 1 of 3.

Speed as well as accuracy is important in this section. Work quickly, or you might not finish the paper. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only marks for correct answers, so you should attempt all 35 questions. Each question is worth one mark.

You must complete the answers within the time limit. Calculators are NOT permitted.

Good Luck!

Note – if press “End Exam” you can access full worked solutions for all past paper questions

A school has 120 pupils, in five year groups. The following table gives some details about the numbers of boys and girls in each year group:

There is a probability of 1 in 12 that a boy selected at random is in Year 4.

1. What is the probability that a Year 4 pupil selected at random is a boy?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    First, quickly fill in the table. Filled sections are in red. 

    Year

    Boys Girls Total
    1 18 6

    24

    2

    40-24 = 16 24 40
    3 8 16-8 = 8

    16

    4

    1/12 chance of boy being in yr 4, 72/12 = 6 (no need to fill this in, but…) 16-6 = 10 120-(24+40+16+24) = 16
    5 72-(18+16+8+6) = 24 (No need to fill this in, but…) 24-24 = 0

    24

    Total

    120-48 = 72 48

    120

    So, the probability that out of all the students in year 4 we pick a boy, is 6/16 or D, 3/8.

    Post Comment

    Forest fires in Indonesia this year have emitted 1.6 gigatonnes of CO₂. To put that in perspective, it has been estimated that the entire world must emit less than 1000 gigatonnes of CO₂ every year from now on if we are to avoid dangerous global warming. When forest vegetation burns, the amount of CO₂ released into the atmosphere can be taken back up again by the plants as they regrow. But in Indonesia it is not only the plants that are burning. Peat that has accumulated over thousands of years is also on fire, releasing buried carbon. Forest fires in Indonesia burn most fiercely in years when the region is drier, as it is this year. Rain arrived in Indonesia recently, and the number of new fires has dropped.

    2. Which one of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Statement B is the best conclusion from all four options provided. The first sentence quantifies the amount of carbon dioxide that Indonesia has emitted this current year due to forest fires. This coupled with dry forest fires which burn peat (which releases more carbon dioxide) is likely to result in carbon dioxide remaining within the atmosphere.

    Statement A is incorrect because Indonesia emitted 1.6 out of the worlds maximum target to emit less than 1000 gigatonnes of carbon dioxide per year. Therefore reducing Indonesia’s yearly carbon dioxide emissions will not make a huge difference in reducing annual global carbon dioxide emissions.

    Statement C is incorrect because there is no mention how much carbon dioxide Indonesia will emit the following year.

    Statement D is incorrect because it is too definitive when it states that ‘global warming will not occur’ if forest fires can be prevented or better controlled.

    Post Comment

    Charges for Bed and Breakfast at the Donclair Hotel are as follows:

    However, guests who stay for seven or more consecutive nights pay $40 per night for the whole of their stay.

    Additionally, the bill for the hotel will include any charges incurred for the use of the car park. The charge for the car park is $5 per night or $25 for a seven-night permit.

    John stayed at the hotel recently for five consecutive nights, keeping his car in the car park. He has now booked eight consecutive nights next month, and again he will keep his car in the car park. John never has any other charges added to his bill.

    3. How much more than last time will John’s bill for his next stay at the Donclair Hotel be?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Calculate each stay, then the difference. Calculate nights and parking separately to keep your thoughts clear. 

    Stay 1

    Nights: 5 nights, first 2 at $50 ($100) and last 3 at $40 ($120) to total $220

    Parking: $5 per night, 5 nights to total $25

    Total: $245

    Stay 2

    Nights: 8 nights, $40 each to total $320

    Parking: $25 for 7-night permit. $5 for the next to total $30. 

    Total: $350

    The difference is $105

    Post Comment

    When we listen to music, electrical waves in our brains tend to synchronise to the tempo. In a recent study scientists recorded the brain waves of musicians and non-musicians as they listened to music. Although the brain waves of both groups synchronised to many rhythms, those of non-musicians did not synchronise to particularly slow music. The non-musicians reported that they could not keep track of the tempo in slow music. This shows that becoming a musician requires an innate tendency for the brain to synchronise to the tempo of any speed of music.

    4. Which one of the following identifies a flaw in the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    This argument makes the assumption that the brain’s ability to synchronise to the tempo of any speed of music is a prerequisite to becoming a good musician. It doesn’t consider that those who are musicians may have developed that skill as they practised more. In A, we cannot make this assumption, C is irrelevant. D is correct but it doesn’t not pin point the flaw in this argument.

    Post Comment

    The students in a physics class took a practical test and a written test. Their results are shown in the following table.

    Their teacher has drawn a scatter graph, shown below, but one student’s marks are missing.

    5. Which student’s marks are missing from the scatter graph?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Here, we need to start by working entirely what the graph represents. It must be practical scores plotted against written in this graph format, and by looking at the markings on the x and y axis we can deduce that the x axis must be practical scores (there are fewer intervals, and practical scores are less broadly distributed), and the y axis must be written by the same logic. The lowest score on practical tests was 4, so we can look at the leftmost point to work out that the intervals on the x axis must increase by 5 points each time. Because Ina (the student scoring 4 in the practical) had a written score of 32, we can also work out from this point that the y axis must be in increments of 10. Now, we can read off the options. We see that Con had a score of 10 in the practical, which is on the graph, but this point represents a student who scored between 35 and 40, not 52 as Con did. With no points at 10 in the written test, we know that Con has been omitted. 

    Top tip!
    Here, the correct answer is A. Do not waste time looking at the other options, as you can confidently answer without doing so.

    Post Comment

    Wide-ranging increases in the cost of bringing a civil court case recently announced by the UK government are an assault on citizens’ access to the law. It is tantamount to treating justice like a commodity. The latest proposals will increase fees by more than 1000% for claims of £200000 or more. They will deter individuals and small businesses from taking cases to court, for fear of the cost if they lose, crippling anyone trying to recover monies owed to them. All civil cases, from divorce to landlords trying to get their property back, are affected. If justice is not to be out of reach of the majority of ordinary people, the government must think again. The civil courts are the backbone of a fair society and a prosperous economy.

    6. Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Statement D is correct here because the first sentence starts by mentioning how an increase in the cost of civil court cases is a great assault on citizen’s access to the law. It therefore concludes that for justice to remain accessible to most ordinary people, the government must reconsider imposing such costs. This is summarised in statement D.

    Statement A & C are evidence statements to support the overarching conclusion.

    Statement B is incorrect because it does not explicitly state that the increase in civil court cases is equivalent to a saleable object.

    Statement E is incorrect because although it is synonymous to the very last sentence, it is evidence to support the conclusion; how imperative it is that the government reconsiders the imposition of a rise in civil court case prices.

    Post Comment

    Citizens of Beematia pay tax on their incomes each calendar year, as follows:

    In 2014, Paul paid a total of $5600 tax on his year’s income. In 2015, however, he paid $800 less than in 2014, despite earning $2000 more.

    7. What was Paul’s total income in 2015?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Here, we have been given the hint that Paul is earning more but paying less in 2015. The only way for this to be true is if he is abiding by different tax laws in 2015, and the only difference we see is for over- and under-50s. Therefore, he must be 49 in 2014 and 50 in 2015. Therefore, we use the under-50s column to calculate his income in 2014. First, calculate the maximum he can earn in each bracket. He earns $9,000 tax-free, then pays 20% of the next $25,000 (0.2 x 25,000 = 5,000), so he is paying $600 ($5,600 – $5,000) on the rest of his earnings. If $600 is 30%, we can call his total earnings in this bracket 100% and multiple $600 by 3.333… to get $2,000 in this tax bracket. Therefore, he earns $36,000 in 2014. He earns $2,000 more in 2015, therefore $38,000. 

    Top Tip!
    Review the Medic Mind notes on tax questions and remember to take a logical approach. These questions can be easy marks!

    Post Comment

    A new electronics company has released six new products this year, Product 1 at the start of January, Product 2 at the start of March, Product 3 at the start of May, Product 4 at the start of July, Product 5 at the start of September and Product 6 at the start of November. Sales from the factory are always in multiples of 50 units.

    The charts below show the total number of each of the products sold in each quarter of the year and the income from sales of each product in December.

    The prices at which the different products are sold are shown below:

    8. What was the total income for April to June?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Despite some confounding units to be careful with, a methodical approach makes this question simple. Reading off the top graph, 8,000 units each of products 1, 2 and 3 were sold between April and June. Reading off the bottom table, products 1 and 3 both cost £1,500 per 100 units, so we can do 16 x 1,500 = 24,000 to give us the total cost for products 1 and 3. Product 2 costs £2,000 per 100 units, and 8 x 2,000 gives us $16,000 for product 2. Totalling gives us $40,000 in profits between April and June.

     

    Top tip!

    Read carefully. I know you’ve heard this a million times. It will never stop applying.

    Post Comment

    A new electronics company has released six new products this year, Product 1 at the start of January, Product 2 at the start of March, Product 3 at the start of May, Product 4 at the start of July, Product 5 at the start of September and Product 6 at the start of November. Sales from the factory are always in multiples of 50 units.

    The charts below show the total number of each of the products sold in each quarter of the year and the income from sales of each product in December.

    The prices at which the different products are sold are shown below:

    9. When Product 2 had been on sale for three months, two thirds of its sales had been in the first month. How much money was generated from sales of Product 2 in June?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    We know that product 2 was released in March, and it was in this month that 2/3 of all sales in March, April and May were made. Reading off the graph, we see that 900 sales were made in March, therefore 900 x 1.5 gives us 1,350, representing all the sales of product 2 in March, April and May. Therefore, between April and May, 1,350 – 900 = 450 sales must have been made. Now, we know that 800 sales of product 2 were made in April, May and June so we can simply subtract 450 (sales from April and May) from 800 (total for all 3 months) to give us 350 units sold in June. We know that product 2 costs £2,000 per 100 units, so £2,000 x 3.5 gives us £7,000 in profits from product 2 in June. 

    Post Comment

    A new electronics company has released six new products this year, Product 1 at the start of January, Product 2 at the start of March, Product 3 at the start of May, Product 4 at the start of July, Product 5 at the start of September and Product 6 at the start of November. Sales from the factory are always in multiples of 50 units.

    The charts below show the total number of each of the products sold in each quarter of the year and the income from sales of each product in December.

    The prices at which the different products are sold are shown below:

    10. How many units of Product 6 were sold in November?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    We are told that product 6 was released in November, so the bar from October to December actually only represents profits from November and December. We are told that between these months, product 6 sold 600 units and cost £4,000 per 100 units, so made a total of £24,000. In December, profits were only £6,000 so £18,000 of the total must have been from November. £18,000 divided by £4,000 gives us the total units sold in hundreds, 4.5. Therefore, 450 units were sold in November. 

    Post Comment

    A new electronics company has released six new products this year, Product 1 at the start of January, Product 2 at the start of March, Product 3 at the start of May, Product 4 at the start of July, Product 5 at the start of September and Product 6 at the start of November. Sales from the factory are always in multiples of 50 units.

    The charts below show the total number of each of the products sold in each quarter of the year and the income from sales of each product in December.

    The prices at which the different products are sold are shown below:

    11. Which of the products has had the highest average monthly sales (in terms of number of units sold) since it was released?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    Start by setting up the calculation you want to perform in your head. Average units sold per month is total sales over months on sale. Therefore, we can quickly run through each to find the highest value for the average. In this case, it is product 5 which has been on sale for just 4 months but sold 1400 units overall for a total average of 350 a month.

    Post Comment
    Caitlin Medicmind Tutor

    Mon, 25 Oct 2021 22:00:20

    It says Q11 is E on the BMAT answer key

    Time is represented in an unusual way in Bolandia. The format is mm:hh, where mm represents the number of minutes to the next hour (hh). For example, 17:03 represents 17 minutes before 3am. However, there are still 60 minutes in an hour and 24 hours in a day.

    Helen is staying in a hotel in Bolandia, and the clocks in the hotel display time in this way.

    When she goes to bed one evening, the clock in her room reads 21:23. She wakes up a while later and sees that the clock says 23:04.

    12. For how long has Helen been asleep?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Writing as you go, work out what each of these times represents for an easy fix. 21:23 represents 21 minutes to 23:00 (on the 24 hour clock), or 22:39. 23:04 represents 23 minutes to 04:00, or 03:37. The difference between these times is 4 hours and 58 minutes. 

    Top Tip!
    Writing as you go saves you time, this question is quite simple but can muddle you up if you don’t have written what you’ve done so far.

    Post Comment

    Research has shown that parents with high incomes tend to have children who score highly in IQ tests. It is very unlikely that this is because having rich parents improves one’s IQ. Much more likely is that being intelligent tends to result in having a high income, since a high level of intelligence is required for entering well-paid professions such as medicine and law. The research did not examine whether the relationship between parental income and children’s IQ scores was dependent on the nature of the parents’ profession. If it were found that the children of high earners in sport and entertainment did not generally have high IQ scores, we could conclude that the intelligence level of children is largely genetically inherited from their parents.

    13. Which one of the following is an assumption underlying the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Statement A is the correct answer as the text suggests that sports and entertainment high earners are an exception to the argument proposed.

    Statement B is false as IQ is independent of education.

    Statement C is incorrect as the text did not take into consideration parental profession.

    Statement D is not mentioned in the passage.

    Post Comment

    At the beginning of last year, Sam had $1000 in her bank account.

    The following graph shows the changes, in hundreds of dollars, in the balance of money in her account over that year.

    14. At the end of how many months last year did Sam have more than $1300 in her account?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Count quickly along in your head, making notes on the question paper if you wish, of the values for each month. 

    $1,000 –> $1,300 –> $1,100 –> $1,300 –> $1,300 –> $1,700

    Therefore, it took 5 months for Sam to surpass $1,300. 

    Top Tip!
    Don’t calculate values for every month. You only need to know when Sam exceeds $1,300.

    Post Comment

    A group of UK scientists have a rare opportunity to study human brains thanks to the promise of donations of brains after death by some  members of a study group. The dissection of these brains and the counting of the numbers of synapses in them may add evidence to the idea of ‘cognitive reserve’: when a person gets older, they start to lose some brain synapses, with a negative impact on cognitive function. Those elderly people who have led a ‘brain friendly ’ lifestyle when younger are thought to have created extra synapses, mitigating the naturally  occurring loss of synapses through age. Adopting a ‘brain friendly’ lifestyle when younger should make it possible to retain cognitive performance into old age. Such a lifestyle is thought to include reading books, being socially active and physically healthy.

    15. Which one of the following can reliably be concluded from the information in the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Statement B is correct here because it captures the final two sentences which conclude that taking on a more ‘brain friendly lifestyle’ when younger can make it more likely to retain greater cognitive performance into old age. Retaining such cognitive performance involves retaining brain synapses. This is summarised in statement B.

    Statement A & D are incorrect because they are too definitive.

    Statement C is incorrect because there is no information in the text describing how there is limited information regarding understanding deteriorating cognitive performance in older age.

    Statement E is incorrect as it misses the point of the paragraph and is not there to increase brain donations for medical research post death.

    Post Comment

    Five friends are sitting at a round table playing the ‘LRC’ dice game.

    There are five dice. Each face of each die has one letter, ‘L’, ‘R’ or ‘C’, written on it.
    Going clockwise around the table the friends are seated in the following order: Alun, Carmen, Ian, Prem and Ruthie.

    Each friend has five coins for the game.

    Each player in turn rolls the five dice and distributes their coins according to the letters on the top of the rolled dice: an ‘L’ on a die requires passing one coin to the player on their left, an ‘R’ on a die requires passing one coin to the player on their right, and a ‘C’ on a die requires putting one coin in the centre of the table.

    The table below shows the outcome of the dice rolling of the five players:

    16. At the end of the round, which player ends up with the fewest coins?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The LRC game sounds like the most fun five friends can have! How lucky we are to join in. Importantly, we know that all friends roll 5 dice so use up all 5 of their coins, so we do not need to calculate losses, only gains. It might help to draw a diagram, if you do then remember to note which way is right and which is left. In this case, right is counter-clockwise and left is clockwise for the circle. Thinking logically therefore, we can visualise the players using the table where the player above is to the right, and the player below to the left (refer to the diagram). Therefore:

    1. Alun receives 1 coin from Carmen, and 1 from Ruthie for a total of 2
    2. Carmen receives 2 coins from Alun, and 2 coins from Ian for a total of 4
    3. Ian receives 2 coins from Carmen, and 1 from Prem for a total of 3
    4. Prem receives 1 coin from Ian, and 2 from Ruthie for a total of 3
    5. Ruthie receives 2 coins from Alun, and 1 from Prem for a total of 3

    Therefore, Alun has the fewest coins.

     

    Top tip!
    If you draw a circle to help you visualise this type of question, note down which way is left and which is right to save you time as below: 

    Post Comment

    Over-prescription of antibiotics by doctors who respond to patients’ demands has raised the drug resistance of harmful bacteria. Drug resistant bacteria can make routine surgery and minor cuts fatal if infections take hold. We could introduce penalties for doctors who over-prescribe, but this would not be enough. Given the scale and escalation of antibiotic resistance, we need to discover a new class of antibiotics. In the past, pharmaceutical companies have not regarded research on antibiotics as potentially profitable. Governments should give financial incentives to the pharmaceutical industry to intensify work on finding new classes of antibiotics which could be kept in reserve for emergencies such as a global epidemic. This would make it more attractive for pharmaceutical companies to carry out the necessary research.

    17. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The passage concludes that an increase in antibiotic resistance has meant that pharmaceutical companies need to create a new class of antibiotics. This new class of antibiotics would be strictly reserved for emergency scenarios such as a global epidemic. The government must therefore provide financial incentives to pharmaceutical companies to produce these new antibiotics.

    Statement A strengthens this argument as any new antibiotic that is made will not be sold routinely, but rather only be given in emergency cases. This supports the conclusion that new antibiotics should be created for emergency cases.

    Statement B is evidence to support the main conclusion, rather than strengthening the overarching conclusion.

    Statement C & D are irrelevant to the argument as they are not mentioned.

    Post Comment

    I have a deposit of £25000 that I want to use to help to buy a house. The purchase price of the house is £150 000, and the remainder of the cost of the house is to be financed using a mortgage.

    My building society offers 5 mortgages, the details of which are published on its website as follows:

    18. If the Bank Base Rate (currently 2.0%) stays the same over the next year, which of the mortgages that I am eligible for will cost me the least in fees and interest over the first year?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    First, we should work out the mortgages for which this lucky buyer is eligible. The value of the house is a shockingly low £150,000, and with the deposit the buyer will only need a loan for £125,000 therefore the LTV is (125/150) x 100 = 83.3%. The buyer is therefore not eligible for plans 1 and 2. Next, it is quick to work out the individual interest rates first by finding 1% of £125,000 (£1,250), and multiplying this by the interest rate for each as follows as well as adding fees. 

    For mortgage 3 with 5% flat rate interest: 1250 x 5 = £6,250. With £500 fee, this is £6,750.

    For mortgage 4 with 3% interest (BBR + 1): 1250 x 3 = £3,750. With £2,000 fee, this is £5,750.

    For mortgage 5 with 4% interest (BBR + 2): 1250 x 4 = £5,000. With £1,000 fee, this is £6,000. 

    Mortgage 4 is the cheapest. 

     

    Top tip!
    Never work out what you don’t need to. You can save serious time in this question by seeing early that our prospective house owner is not eligible for mortgages 1 and 2 and not assessing them! 

    Post Comment

    Fracking in the US 2005–2012

    The oil and gas industry has increasingly turned to hydraulic fracturing – known as ‘fracking’ – in a highly polluting effort to unlock oil and gas in underground shale beds across the United States. Fracking is already underway in 17 states, with more than 100,000 wells drilled since 2005.

    Water used
    Since 2005, fracking has used nearly 250 billion gallons of water across the nation (see the Table below). The greatest total water consumption occurred in Texas, at the same time as the state was struggling with extreme drought. In Colorado the amount of water used for fracking was enough to meet the water needs of nearly 200,000 households in the state for a year.

    Chemicals used
    Fracking fluid consists of water mixed with chemicals such as benzene that is pumped underground to frack wells. Although in percentage terms chemicals are a small component of fracking fluid, the total volume of chemicals used is immense. According to the oil and gas industry, 99.2% (by volume) of fracking fluid is water and the other 0.8% is a mix of chemicals. These can enter drinking water supplies from the well, or in the wastewater disposal process.

    Global warming (GW) pollution released
    Completion of fracking wells from 2005 to 2012 produced global warming pollution equal to the CO2 emissions from 28 coal-fired power plants in a year.

    Variation
    Both water consumption and pollution levels varied sharply from state to state.

    Table: Fracking states (ordered by quantity of water used)

    19. The number of wells drilled in Oklahoma in 2012 was unavailable. Assuming it rose by the same proportion as neighbouring Texas against the 2005–2011 average, which of the following would be the best estimate of the missing number?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    For this question, calculate the average number of wells drilled yearly in Texas from 2005-2011 (33,753/6 = 5,625.5). If in 2012 13,540 wells were drilled, this is an increase of 2.4 times greater than our yearly average. 

    The yearly average in Oklahoma was (2,694/6 = 449). An increase of the same proportion as Texas would be 449 x 2.4, or 1,077.6 which makes C the best estimate. 

    Post Comment

    Fracking in the US 2005–2012

    The oil and gas industry has increasingly turned to hydraulic fracturing – known as ‘fracking’ – in a highly polluting effort to unlock oil and gas in underground shale beds across the United States. Fracking is already underway in 17 states, with more than 100,000 wells drilled since 2005.

    Water used
    Since 2005, fracking has used nearly 250 billion gallons of water across the nation (see the Table below). The greatest total water consumption occurred in Texas, at the same time as the state was struggling with extreme drought. In Colorado the amount of water used for fracking was enough to meet the water needs of nearly 200,000 households in the state for a year.

    Chemicals used
    Fracking fluid consists of water mixed with chemicals such as benzene that is pumped underground to frack wells. Although in percentage terms chemicals are a small component of fracking fluid, the total volume of chemicals used is immense. According to the oil and gas industry, 99.2% (by volume) of fracking fluid is water and the other 0.8% is a mix of chemicals. These can enter drinking water supplies from the well, or in the wastewater disposal process.

    Global warming (GW) pollution released
    Completion of fracking wells from 2005 to 2012 produced global warming pollution equal to the CO2 emissions from 28 coal-fired power plants in a year.

    Variation
    Both water consumption and pollution levels varied sharply from state to state.

    Table: Fracking states (ordered by quantity of water used)

    20.The amount of water used per well varied significantly between states over the period from 2005 to 2012. Of the states for which data was available, Louisiana had the highest value and Utah had the lowest. What was the difference between those two values?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Remember to add the value for wells drilled in 2012 to the value of 2005-2011! 

    For Louisiana: 12,000 million gallons from 2466 wells. 12,000/2466 = 4.866mil gallons per well.

    For Utah: 590 million gallons from 2101 wells. 590/2101 = 0.28mil gallons per well. 

    Difference = approx. 4.8mil – 0.3 mil = 4.5 mil.

    Post Comment

    Fracking in the US 2005–2012

    The oil and gas industry has increasingly turned to hydraulic fracturing – known as ‘fracking’ – in a highly polluting effort to unlock oil and gas in underground shale beds across the United States. Fracking is already underway in 17 states, with more than 100,000 wells drilled since 2005.

    Water used
    Since 2005, fracking has used nearly 250 billion gallons of water across the nation (see the Table below). The greatest total water consumption occurred in Texas, at the same time as the state was struggling with extreme drought. In Colorado the amount of water used for fracking was enough to meet the water needs of nearly 200,000 households in the state for a year.

    Chemicals used
    Fracking fluid consists of water mixed with chemicals such as benzene that is pumped underground to frack wells. Although in percentage terms chemicals are a small component of fracking fluid, the total volume of chemicals used is immense. According to the oil and gas industry, 99.2% (by volume) of fracking fluid is water and the other 0.8% is a mix of chemicals. These can enter drinking water supplies from the well, or in the wastewater disposal process.

    Global warming (GW) pollution released
    Completion of fracking wells from 2005 to 2012 produced global warming pollution equal to the CO2 emissions from 28 coal-fired power plants in a year.

    Variation
    Both water consumption and pollution levels varied sharply from state to state.

    Table: Fracking states (ordered by quantity of water used)

    Which of the following statements can be concluded from the information in the table and the text?

    1 The fracking fluids used in Texas from 2005 to 2012 contained 880 million gallons of chemicals, with the risk of contaminating drinking water.

    2 A typical coal-fired power station in the US emits approximately 36,000,000 tonnes of CO2 in one year.

    3 A typical Colorado household needs around 130,000 gallons of water per year.

    21. Which of the following statements can be concluded from the information in the table and the text?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    Statement 1: The vignette tells us that 99.2% of fracking fluids is water, which in Texas was represented by 110,000 million litres of water. Therefore, we can calculate 110,000 x 1.008 to find that the total fluid volume was 110880 million litres, 110,000 of which was water and 880 of which was chemicals. Moreover, the vignette describes that these chemicals can pollute water. Therefore, this statement is true. 

    Statement 2: We are told that the total CO2 emissions from fracking (100,551,000 tonnes) was equal to that of 28 coal-fired power plants. Therefore, we can work out the output of one such plant by calculating 100,551,000/28 = 3,591,107 not 36,000,000. This statement is false. 

    Statement 3: We are told that in Colorado, the water used for fracking (26,000,000,000 litres) would be enough for 20,000 households. Therefore, we can work out the average household use as 26,000,000,000/20,000 = 130,000. This statement is true. 

     

    Top tip!
    Use verbal reasoning skills to find useful parts of the vignette for questions like this. You need to focus on a different part for each section, so be discerning where you look.

    Post Comment

    Fracking in the US 2005–2012

    The oil and gas industry has increasingly turned to hydraulic fracturing – known as ‘fracking’ – in a highly polluting effort to unlock oil and gas in underground shale beds across the United States. Fracking is already underway in 17 states, with more than 100,000 wells drilled since 2005.

    Water used
    Since 2005, fracking has used nearly 250 billion gallons of water across the nation (see the Table below). The greatest total water consumption occurred in Texas, at the same time as the state was struggling with extreme drought. In Colorado the amount of water used for fracking was enough to meet the water needs of nearly 200,000 households in the state for a year.

    Chemicals used
    Fracking fluid consists of water mixed with chemicals such as benzene that is pumped underground to frack wells. Although in percentage terms chemicals are a small component of fracking fluid, the total volume of chemicals used is immense. According to the oil and gas industry, 99.2% (by volume) of fracking fluid is water and the other 0.8% is a mix of chemicals. These can enter drinking water supplies from the well, or in the wastewater disposal process.

    Global warming (GW) pollution released
    Completion of fracking wells from 2005 to 2012 produced global warming pollution equal to the CO2 emissions from 28 coal-fired power plants in a year.

    Variation
    Both water consumption and pollution levels varied sharply from state to state.

    Table: Fracking states (ordered by quantity of water used)

    Which of the following, if true, would offer a convincing explanation for the wide variation in water consumption per well in different states?

    1 Water supplies are more plentiful in some states than others.

    2 The technology for extracting shale gas has developed slowly in the lifetime of fracking.

    3 Some states have drilled many more wells than others.

    22. Which of the following, if true, would offer a convincing explanation for the wide variation in water consumption per well in different states?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is H.

    Statement 1: The only relation to availability of water could be that less is used in states with less water, and this is clearly not true as Texas had the highest use at the time of a drought. 

    Statement 2: This is not a relevant statement – there is no link given in the vignette between shale gas and water use.

    Statement 3: This concept does not provide an explanation for the differences

    Post Comment

    The drawing below shows the outlines of three pieces of card (one square and two right angled triangles) which all fit exactly around the same size circle.

    The pieces of card are pinned together through the centres of the circles and each of the card shapes can be rotated about the pin so that together the three shapes make an interesting outline.

    23. Which one of the following is a possible outline of the three shapes?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    For this question, it may help to try and fit each shape into the outlines individually. So, the square could not be fitted into A or E in any rotation. In both B and C, picturing the middle triangle we would expect to see a point at the top of the circle at 12 o’clock. However, all shapes can be visualised as fitting into D. 

    Post Comment

    A brisk 30-minute walk five days a week is more effective than any other form of exercise for keeping weight down regardless of age, a major study has concluded. The effectiveness of ‘high impact’ walking in keeping weight down is greater than that from keep-fit activities including running, swimming and working out in the gym. Men who walked briskly for 30 minutes five days a week for four weeks had a BMI one unit lower than average; for women the difference was 1.8 units. For those who exercised or participated in sporting activities over similar periods, however, the results were less marked: men’s BMI was 0.3 units lower and women’s about one unit lower. The explanation for this is likely to be that calorie burning is optimised when walking because it is a constant, uninterrupted activity, unlike games such as tennis which are more stop-start.

    24. Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    The passage concludes that 30-minutes of brisk walking five days a week ‘is more effective than any other form of exercise for keeping weight down.’

    Statement C weakens the argument because it offers a reason as to why weight loss may be lower in other sports (and thus why the BMI reduction per unit is lower).

    Statement A is incorrect because the passage discusses that ‘high impact’ walking is effective for all age groups (‘regardless of age’) rather than just for older people.

    Statement B is incorrect because it does not specifically mention a sport (e.g. tennis) that is then compared to ‘high impact’ walking.

    Statement D is incorrect because the passage compares BMI rather than weight loss in ‘high impact’ walkers to those who play sports.

    Post Comment

    To mark ‘Back to the Future’ day on October 21st 2015, the Galaxy Cinema screened all three of the Back to the Future films, in order, twice.

    The running times of the films were as follows:

    Back to the Future – 117 minutes
    Back to the Future Part II – 109 minutes
    Back to the Future Part III – 119 minutes

    The performance times were arranged so that the first showing of the first film began at 10:15 and the second showing of the last film ended at 22:45. The interval between successive films was the same throughout the day.

    25. How long was each interval between successive films?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    First, total up the runtime of all 3 movies played twice and convert this to hours:
    (117 + 109 + 119) x 2 = 11.5 = 11 hours 30 minutes. 

    With no breaks, this would run from 10.15 to 21.45. Therefore, there is an hour left to be divided into 5 breaks between films, which gives 12 minutes for each break.

    Post Comment

    The sale of self-help books that claim to reveal the secret of happiness generated $10 billion in 2009. But if you want to become more contented with life, you shouldn’t read these books, because reading them will have the opposite effect. Researchers at the University of Montreal found that those who had read such books were more likely to be anxious and depressed than those who had never read them.

    26. Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    This argument also makes a direct link between two factors, claiming that reading the self help books will cause anxiety and depression, when actually it could be the other way around. Statement A is irrelevant. C and D may be correct but not the are not a flaw in the presented argument.

    Post Comment

    The table below shows a record of my blood pressure and pulse readings over nine days.

    27. What was my pulse on the occasion when I had the biggest difference between systolic and diastolic readings?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is F.

    In this exciting first glimpse into the life of a bored and, apparently moderately hypertensive, physiologist, eyeballing is a good way to find candidates for the biggest difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure. We want a high systolic and a low diastolic: the highest systolic values were on Saturday pm (165) and Tuesday am (163), and the lowest diastolic values were on Monday pm (78) and Thursday pm (81). 

    Saturday pm: 165 – 99 = 66

    Tuesday am: 163 – 96 = 67

    Thursday pm: 149-81 = 68

    Monday pm = 145-78 = 67

    Therefore, Thursday pm had the largest gap and the pulse here was 86.

     

    Top tip!

    Make sure to thoroughly read the question – this one is clearly designed to trip you up by making you select A which is the difference between the pressures when the question has asked for the pulse. This is even more unfair if you know that the difference between systolic and diastolic is called the pulse pressure. Unreasonable I tell you…

    Post Comment

    Recent theories about the causes of cancer have held that most cancers are caused by internal factors, the result of inevitable mistakes in the human body rather than anything environmental. This would seem to imply that whether or not a person develops cancer is entirely out of his or her control; what that person does in terms of lifestyle choices is irrelevant. And yet the latest high-profile study has strongly challenged this. It estimates that between 70 and 90 per cent of the most widespread cancers have extrinsic causes, such as ultraviolet radiation, pollution and stress. If this study is to be believed, then whether or not you develop some cancers is no longer just something you can blame on your biology, but is to a significant extent within your own control.

    28. Which one of the following is an assumption underlying the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Post Comment

    I have a piece of string which I stretch out in a straight line. I then take a thin red felt-tip pen and make a small mark in the middle of the string.

    Then I fold the string in half and again stretch it out, holding onto the fold and to the two ends. This time I make a small mark in the middle of both strands of the folded string with a thin green pen.

    Then I fold it in half again and make a small blue mark in the middle of each strand of the folded string.

    Finally I fold it in half once more, and this time I make a small purple mark in the middle of each strand of the folded string.

    Now I unfold the string and stretch it back out to its full original length.

    29. How many marks are there on the string in between the two green marks?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    This question requires either drawing or logic. An easy way is to draw the line and mark where each coloured line would be through visualisation; naturally, the red mark would be in the middle, the green marks would be halfway between the red mark and the ends, the blues would be halfway between the greens and reds and halfway between the greens and the ends and etc. However, with logic we can say that because the strand number doubles each time the string is folded there will be 1 red mark, 2 green, 4 blue and 8 purple. The space between the green marks will be approximately 50% of the length of the string. We know the red mark will be in between them, along with 50% of the remaining marks which is 6 (4 blue + 8 purple = 12). Therefore, there are 7 marks between them. 

    Post Comment

    People wonder whether or not machines could ever become conscious, but it’s obvious that one day they will. After all, if consciousness is just the result of the working of the brain, and if the brain is just a complicated machine, then what’s to stop machines becoming complex enough to be conscious? Every year machines get more and more complex. It’s only a matter of time before they acquire consciousness.

    30. Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    P1: Consciousness is just the result of the working of the brain

    P2: Brain is just a complicated machine

    C1: It’s only a matter of time before machines acquire consciousness.

    The argument has no supporting evidence which corroborates its claims. According to info in the passage, we don’t know if A is correct. B and C are irrelevant.

    Post Comment

    There are two types of goal that can be scored in the sport of Chargeball: a fess, worth 7 points, and a pale, worth 2 points.

    In a match played last night, the Argents beat the Sables by just 1 point.

    The Argents scored one fess fewer than the Sables.
    The Sables scored the same number of fesses and pales.
    The Argents scored exactly twice as many pales as fesses.

    31. How many pales did the Argents score in last night’s match?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    The simplest way to work out the answer here is to assess each option. In this case, it can be helpful to start with round numbers because the calculations are easier so you could start with 10. If the Argents scored 10 pales, they must have scored 5 fesses for a total of ((10 x 2) + (5 x 7)) = 55 points. The Sables would have scored 6 fesses and 6 pales, for a total of ((6 x 2) + (6 x 7)) = 54 points. Therefore, the answer here is D.

     

    Top tip!
    This method would eventually work if you had started with any of the options, and the technique of starting with the round number options will not always work. However, they will often be quicker to eliminate than others.

    Post Comment
    Dalia Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 09 Oct 2021 20:40:41

    Do it as a ratio of A: S A= Total Scores = y + 1 Fesses: x-1 Pales: 2x-2 (2(x-1)) S= Total Scores = y Fesses: x Pales: x 7(x-1) + 2(2x-2) = y + 1 7x + 2x = y Solve simultaneously.

    Vegetable oils in the modern diet
    Vegetable oils other than olive oil were not introduced in significant amounts into the human diet until the early part of the 20th century. Some people believe that, as we are the genetic product of a hunter–gatherer culture, these are not natural to us as they do not match certain balances of nutrients humans had when they fed mainly on such things as grain, berries and animals and most of our fat came from animal carcasses. They go on to argue that there has not been enough time since those days for evolution to have changed the nutritional requirements of humans.

    Vegetable oils used in cooking, salad oils, margarine and processed foods can supply around 15% of the total daily energy intake in a western diet. This has had the result of raising the dietary ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids to its current value of more than fifteen to one. In hunter–gatherer diets, the omega-6/omega-3 ratio was closer to two to one.

    However, recent research has indicated that there are benefits to the heart from eating fats which have a high polyunsaturate content, as many vegetable oils do. One study has suggested that for every 5% increase in polyunsaturated fat consumption there was a 10% fall in heart disease.

    Some key factors which are thought by some to lead to a healthier diet are as follows:

    • the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids.
    • the erucic acid content: in 2003, Food Standards Australia set a Provisional Tolerable Daily Intake (PTDI) of about 500 mg/day of erucic acid.
    • the percentage of polyunsaturates: it is recommended that adults get no more than 11% of their energy from saturated fats. Vegetable oils have an energy content of about 3700 kJ/100g.

    The typical fat consumption of an adult in the EU was estimated in the year 2015 to be 143 grams per day total fat of which 30% was vegetable oils.

    The table below shows the fatty acid composition of a number of common oils.

    32. What is the polyunsaturate content of a 50:50 mixture of olive and sunflower oils as a percentage of the mass of the mixture?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The easiest way to visualise this without having to convert anything from the table which gives us values per 100g of each oil is to imagine a 50:50 mix of sunflower and olive oil with 100g of each totalling 200g. Reading off the table, find the ‘total polyunsaturated’ row telling us that in 100g of olive oil there is 10g of polyunsaturated fat, and in sunflower oil there is 65.7g. This gives a total of 75.7g of polyunsaturated fat in our 200g of 50:50 mix, or approximately (75.7/200) x 100 = 37.85%, or 37.9%. 

    Post Comment

    Vegetable oils in the modern diet
    Vegetable oils other than olive oil were not introduced in significant amounts into the human diet until the early part of the 20th century. Some people believe that, as we are the genetic product of a hunter–gatherer culture, these are not natural to us as they do not match certain balances of nutrients humans had when they fed mainly on such things as grain, berries and animals and most of our fat came from animal carcasses. They go on to argue that there has not been enough time since those days for evolution to have changed the nutritional requirements of humans.

    Vegetable oils used in cooking, salad oils, margarine and processed foods can supply around 15% of the total daily energy intake in a western diet. This has had the result of raising the dietary ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids to its current value of more than fifteen to one. In hunter–gatherer diets, the omega-6/omega-3 ratio was closer to two to one.

    However, recent research has indicated that there are benefits to the heart from eating fats which have a high polyunsaturate content, as many vegetable oils do. One study has suggested that for every 5% increase in polyunsaturated fat consumption there was a 10% fall in heart disease.

    Some key factors which are thought by some to lead to a healthier diet are as follows:

    • the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids.
    • the erucic acid content: in 2003, Food Standards Australia set a Provisional Tolerable Daily Intake (PTDI) of about 500 mg/day of erucic acid.
    • the percentage of polyunsaturates: it is recommended that adults get no more than 11% of their energy from saturated fats. Vegetable oils have an energy content of about 3700 kJ/100g.

    The typical fat consumption of an adult in the EU was estimated in the year 2015 to be 143 grams per day total fat of which 30% was vegetable oils.

    The table below shows the fatty acid composition of a number of common oils.

    33. Which one of the following is an assumption made in thinking that the optimal omega-6/omega-3 ratio is approximately two to one?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Use a keyword approach to find the part of the text referring to an omega-6/omega-3 ratio and read it. It tells us that “In hunter–gatherer diets, the omega-6/omega-3 ratio was closer to two to one”. Therefore, the assumption made in the statement is that the nutrient balance of hunter-gatherer diets is more appropriate than modern diets. The remaining statements have little relevance to this part of the passage, except statement B. This is not the answer, as the passage does not tell us whether or not this has already been considered so we do not know it is an assumption. 

    Post Comment

    Vegetable oils in the modern diet
    Vegetable oils other than olive oil were not introduced in significant amounts into the human diet until the early part of the 20th century. Some people believe that, as we are the genetic product of a hunter–gatherer culture, these are not natural to us as they do not match certain balances of nutrients humans had when they fed mainly on such things as grain, berries and animals and most of our fat came from animal carcasses. They go on to argue that there has not been enough time since those days for evolution to have changed the nutritional requirements of humans.

    Vegetable oils used in cooking, salad oils, margarine and processed foods can supply around 15% of the total daily energy intake in a western diet. This has had the result of raising the dietary ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids to its current value of more than fifteen to one. In hunter–gatherer diets, the omega-6/omega-3 ratio was closer to two to one.

    However, recent research has indicated that there are benefits to the heart from eating fats which have a high polyunsaturate content, as many vegetable oils do. One study has suggested that for every 5% increase in polyunsaturated fat consumption there was a 10% fall in heart disease.

    Some key factors which are thought by some to lead to a healthier diet are as follows:

    • the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids.
    • the erucic acid content: in 2003, Food Standards Australia set a Provisional Tolerable Daily Intake (PTDI) of about 500 mg/day of erucic acid.
    • the percentage of polyunsaturates: it is recommended that adults get no more than 11% of their energy from saturated fats. Vegetable oils have an energy content of about 3700 kJ/100g.

    The typical fat consumption of an adult in the EU was estimated in the year 2015 to be 143 grams per day total fat of which 30% was vegetable oils.

    The table below shows the fatty acid composition of a number of common oils.

    34. If the only vegetable oil used by a typical European consumer is canola oil, what is his or her intake of erucic acid as a percentage of the PTDI?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    In the passage, we are told that the average European gains around 30% of their average 143g total fat, or 42.9g from oil. Canola oil contains 0.6g per 100ml of erucic acid, or around 600mg. Therefore, in 42.9g of oil there is 0.429 x 600 = 257.4mg of erucic acid which is approximately 50% of the 500mg PTDI. This is closest to option B. 

    Post Comment

    Vegetable oils in the modern diet
    Vegetable oils other than olive oil were not introduced in significant amounts into the human diet until the early part of the 20th century. Some people believe that, as we are the genetic product of a hunter–gatherer culture, these are not natural to us as they do not match certain balances of nutrients humans had when they fed mainly on such things as grain, berries and animals and most of our fat came from animal carcasses. They go on to argue that there has not been enough time since those days for evolution to have changed the nutritional requirements of humans.

    Vegetable oils used in cooking, salad oils, margarine and processed foods can supply around 15% of the total daily energy intake in a western diet. This has had the result of raising the dietary ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids to its current value of more than fifteen to one. In hunter–gatherer diets, the omega-6/omega-3 ratio was closer to two to one.

    However, recent research has indicated that there are benefits to the heart from eating fats which have a high polyunsaturate content, as many vegetable oils do. One study has suggested that for every 5% increase in polyunsaturated fat consumption there was a 10% fall in heart disease.

    Some key factors which are thought by some to lead to a healthier diet are as follows:

    • the ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acids.
    • the erucic acid content: in 2003, Food Standards Australia set a Provisional Tolerable Daily Intake (PTDI) of about 500 mg/day of erucic acid.
    • the percentage of polyunsaturates: it is recommended that adults get no more than 11% of their energy from saturated fats. Vegetable oils have an energy content of about 3700 kJ/100g.

    The typical fat consumption of an adult in the EU was estimated in the year 2015 to be 143 grams per day total fat of which 30% was vegetable oils.

    The table below shows the fatty acid composition of a number of common oils.

    35. What would be the percentage of flaxseed oil in a mix of flaxseed and sunflower oils if the omega-6/omega-3 ratio were two to one?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    The table tells us that sunflower oil contains no omega-3 fatty acids so all of these must be contributed by the flaxseed oil. So all we need to work out is how much olive oil we would need to add to 100g of flaxseed oil to gain the desired ratio. If 100g of flaxseed contains 53.3g of omega-6, then we would need a total of 106.6g of omega-3 in the mix. Now, 12.7g of this omega 3 is already contributed by the flaxseed oil so we simply need to contribute 93.9g from sunflower oil, which contains 65.7g per 100g. We can simply calculate the that we would need a ratio of 93.9/65.7 = 1.42 so 142g of sunflower oil added to the flaxseed for 242g of total mixture. In this mixture, the percentage of flaxseed would be 100/242 = 41%. 

    Post Comment

    BMAT 2016 S1 Review Screen

    Instructions

    Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.

    The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:

    1. Review all of your questions and answers.
    2. Review questions that are incomplete.
    3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)

    You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.

    BMAT 2016 S1 Section

    Final Answer Review Screen

    Instructions

    This review section allows you to view the answers you made and see whether they were correct or not. Each question accessed from this screen has an 'Explain Answer' button in the top left hand side. By clicking on this you will obtain an explanation as to the correct answer.

    At the bottom of this screen you can choose to 'Review All' answers, 'Review Incorrect' answers or 'Review Flagged' answers. Alternatively you can go to specific questions by opening up any of the sub-tests below.

    BMAT 2016 S1 Section

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