This section is Section 1 of 3.

Speed as well as accuracy is important in this section. Work quickly, or you might not finish the paper. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only marks for correct answers, so you should attempt all 35 questions. Each question is worth one mark.

You must complete the answers within the time limit. Calculators are NOT permitted.

Good Luck!

Riverside Walk is a popular walking path, 3.2 kilometres long, beside the River Bee. There is a seat situated at each end of the path and also every 400 metres in between. There are two litter bins just next to every seat and one litter bin every 100 metres between each seat and the next.

1. How many litter bins are there along Riverside Walk?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Start by calculating the number of benches – that’s 2 at each end and one every 400m of a 3200m path or 9 seats total. This accounts for 18 bins overall next to the benches. Now, remember that for 9 seats there will be 8 gaps. With a bin every 100m, there will be 3 bins between every 2 seats for a total of 8 x 3 = 24 bins. Adding up, we have 24 + 18 = 42 bins overall.

     

    Top tip!

    Convert your values to the same units before starting! 3.2km=3200m which makes calculations in your head easier.

    Post Comment

    In the UK in the 1990s, there was an outbreak of the brain disease vCJD, which was caused  by eating beef from cattle infected with the disease BSE. The type of meat thought to be infected was taken out of the food chain in 1989, and cases of vCJD have been declining since 2000. Susceptibility to vCJD is associated with two variants in a gene: M and V. We can inherit three possible combinations: MM, MV and VV. Until last year, all 177 people diagnosed with the disease in the UK had the MM combination. Recently, someone who had the MV combination has  died of the disease. In the UK, 38% of people have the MM combination and 51% have the MV combination.

    2.Which one of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Statement B is correct because the article discusses that of all patients that were diagnosed with the disease had the gene combination MM. However, the person who passed away had the gene combination MV. This means that having one V gene does not guarantee resistance to vCJD. This is paraphrased in statement B.

    Statement A is incorrect because although 11% represents the population who have got VV as their gene combination, there is no information given about VV individuals and their susceptibility to vCJD. It cannot be assumed that because MM and MV combinations seem to be affected that VV individuals would not be affected.

    Statement C is incorrect because there is no mention that if you have the gene MM that you will develop it. It is only mentioned that those who have tested positive for vCJD have been MM.

    Statement D is incorrect because 38% of the UK population have got the gene MM rather than 51% of the population who have got the gene MV combination. The correct answer would have to be 38% for the population to be at risk of developing vCJD in the future.

    Post Comment

    Five employees swipe a card every time they enter or leave the office. The times for Thursday are shown in the table below.

    As part of a performance review, the manager observed the activity in the office between 10:00 and 12:00.

    3. Which employee was in the office for the largest total amount of time during this two-hour period?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Bear in mind that you want to ignore values before and after 10.00 and 12.00. Quickly calculate the time in the office for each person: 

    Phil: 10.00-11.03 AND 11.42-12.00, or 63 + 18 minutes = 81 minutes

    Quentin: 11.23-11.46 AND 11.55-12.00, or 23 + 5 minutes = 28 minutes

    Rob: 10.00-10.17 AND 10.26-11.00 AND 11.38-12.00, or 17 + 34 + 22 minutes = 73 minutes

    Sanna: 10.00 – 10.10 AND 10.16-11.50, or 10 + 104 minutes = 114 minutes

    Theresa: 10.00-10.02 AND 10.42 – 12.00, or 2 + 78 minutes = 80 minutes

    Therefore, Sanna spent the longest in the office. Note that while you’re calculating here, some values can be eyeballed to save yourself time.

    For instance, it is clearly not Quentin because having calculated Phil at 81 minutes we see that Quentin does not approach this.

    Post Comment
    imgoingtocry im doing so bad Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 23 Oct 2021 13:16:24

    imscared

    imgoingtocry im doing so bad Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 23 Oct 2021 13:16:28

    im scared

    imgoingtocry im doing so bad Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 23 Oct 2021 13:17:01

    any tips?

    The UK government has recently announced its plan to cut funding to state nurseries. This would be a terrible mistake as high-quality nursery education is crucial. My child blossomed at a state nursery – we cannot let these places lower their standards, or even close. I was more than happy to move my child to the state nursery from a private nursery when she became eligible. Six months later, I would say that that our experience of her new nursery has been outstanding. For this reason, a professionally run state nursery should sit at the heart of every community and it should not be affected by financial restrictions.

    4. Which one of the following is the best statement of the flaw in the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    The passage doesn’t provide sufficient evidence for changing current government plans – only one experience is spoken about. A is wrong. B suggests that there is bias against the government which is not implied in the paragraph. D is irrelevant. Cutting funding will eventually result in closure of some nurseries, so this is not necessarily an assumption.

    Post Comment

    The table shows the average usage, in minutes per day, of five different mobile phone functions, for each of five friends.

    5. For which of the friends could the following pie chart, suitably labelled, represent the information given in the table?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Try to think laterally for the pie chart questions – often enough you will actually not need to do any maths. Spot the pattern – here the two largest and two smallest segments are exactly the same size. Only Bryn and Dolly meet these criteria. Finally, the bottom segment is equal to the 2 smallest segments at the top, which can only represent Dolly for whom the 2 smallest values are 20, the two largest are 80, and the other is 40 which is equal to the sum of her 2 smallest values.

    Post Comment

    When the development of the internet enabled ordinary people to have free, easy access to information, it seemed as though a great breakthrough had been made in empowering people. The subsequent development of social media made it possible for people to share opinions and quickly organise protests against ruling governments. These two technological developments seemed a healthy way forward for democracy. But now social media, which lacks the checks and editing of traditional information sources, enables people to share deliberately false information, which is then accepted as ‘truth’ by many. Opinions are being manipulated via social media by people with their own motivations to discredit rivals or groups with different opinions, and gain power themselves. Social media has become a vehicle for spreading untruths, and has thereby undermined democracy.

    6. Which one of the following best expresses the main conclusion of the argument in the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Statement E is correct here because the passage weighs up the advantages and disadvantages of social media to then summarise in the final sentence that it has become a platform whereby untruths can ‘undermine democracy.’ This is paraphrased in statement C.

    Statement A is incorrect because there is no information in the text stating that censorship will be needed in order to regulate false information on social media in order to maintain democracy.

    Statement B is incorrect because initially technological developments were a useful tool to empower people on social media. But the statement does not highlight how these technological developments have specifically led social media to affect democracy.

    Statement D is incorrect because it is evidence to the overarching conclusion.

    Statement E is incorrect because it does not state that organised protests were undemocratic.

    Post Comment

    The lift in the hotel I am staying in takes 3 seconds to move between consecutive floors and when it stops at a floor it remains stationary for a minimum of 9 seconds to let people in and out.

    A screen inside the lift shows a list of the floors that it has been requested to stop at.

    When the lift moves off after stopping at a floor it always stops next at the closest floor on its list. If two floors are equally close in both directions, it continues in the direction in which it was previously travelling.

    The door of the lift has just closed after I have entered it at floor 11 and added floor 4 to the list of floors to be stopped at. The other floors currently on the list are floors 1, 6, 15 and 24.

    7. Assuming that no further floors are added to the list, what is the minimum time that will elapse before the lift door opens at floor 4?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Start by pathing the lift – you can do this with the knowledge that it will progress to the nearest floor requested or continues in the previous direction if the floors are equidistant. So, the lift must go in the order 

    11 ? 15 ? 24 ? 6 ? 4

    There will be three 9 second stops until our character disembarks on the 4th floor, or 27 seconds of stopped time. From 11-15 it will take 12 seconds, then 27 seconds from 15-24, then 54 seconds from 25-6 and finally 6 seconds from 6-4. This totals to 99 seconds moving time which, totalled with the stopped time of 27 seconds gives us 126 seconds.

    Post Comment
    Bidisha Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 29 Oct 2021 10:43:45

    its not 25-6 but 24-6

    Total unpaid work in the UK in 2015 had a value of £1000 billion, equivalent to approximately 55% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), and women carried out an overall average of 60% more unpaid work than men. The only area where men put in more unpaid work hours than women was in the category of ‘non-leisure travel’. While the numbers of men and women are roughly equal, women did more unpaid work than men in every age group, from the 25 and under age category to the 56 and over age category. The figures also revealed that people on lower incomes tended to carry out on average more unpaid work than other income brackets.

    8. In which age category did women do the most unpaid work relative to men?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    For this question, you could calculate all the ratios and find the largest. However, with some careful eyeballing we see that the categories 26-35 and 36-45 have the largest relative differences. So, we can quickly calculate each of these.

    • 26-35: 34.60/17.47 = 1.98:1
    • 36-45: 33.26/20.87 = 1.59:1

    Therefore, in the age group 26-35 women did the most unpaid work relative to men.

    Post Comment

    Total unpaid work in the UK in 2015 had a value of £1000 billion, equivalent to approximately 55% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), and women carried out an overall average of 60% more unpaid work than men. The only area where men put in more unpaid work hours than women was in the category of ‘non-leisure travel’. While the numbers of men and women are roughly equal, women did more unpaid work than men in every age group, from the 25 and under age category to the 56 and over age category. The figures also revealed that people on lower incomes tended to carry out on average more unpaid work than other income brackets.

    1 Women spend more than twice as much time doing housework as men.

    2 Laundry is the type of unpaid work that men spend the least time on relative to women.

    9. Which of the following can be inferred from the data given?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    We need to quickly assess each statement.

    1. The first table gives us the values needed here – women do 4.66 hours of housework a week compared to men’s 2.42 hours. The ratio here is approximately 1.9 which is less than 2, therefore this statement is false.
    2. Realistically, eyeballing the table will save you time here. The largest differences are by far childcare and laundry, with ratios of 2.47:1 and 6.15:1 respectively. This statement must therefore be true. 

    Therefore, statement 2 is true but not statement 1.

    Top tip!

    When we talk about eyeballing, some people find it easier than others. On one side of the scale, you might have been able to see that laundry was the largest difference easily in this question without calculating which is fine. On the other hand, you may have erred on the side of caution and included cooking which seems to have quite a broad range. Either way is fine, eyeballing and guesstimating still saves you time.

    Post Comment
    bob Medicmind Tutor

    Sat, 23 Oct 2021 02:15:22

    cant your round up 4.6 to 5 and round down 2.4 to 2. to give a ratio of more than 2?

    Total unpaid work in the UK in 2015 had a value of £1000 billion, equivalent to approximately 55% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), and women carried out an overall average of 60% more unpaid work than men. The only area where men put in more unpaid work hours than women was in the category of ‘non-leisure travel’. While the numbers of men and women are roughly equal, women did more unpaid work than men in every age group, from the 25 and under age category to the 56 and over age category. The figures also revealed that people on lower incomes tended to carry out on average more unpaid work than other income brackets.

    10. Which one of the following cannot be a plausible explanation why, contrary to the general trend, people on higher incomes tended to spend more time on non-leisure travel?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Read the question carefully – we are looking for the statement which cannot be a plausible explanation. Think about what constitutes non-leisure travel, then assess the statements. We see that A, B and D all address reasons why lower income people may spend less time driving family around, commuting and getting to university respectively. However, statement C still says lower-income people would be getting public transport which is still non-essential travel so this argument cannot be valid.

    Post Comment

    Total unpaid work in the UK in 2015 had a value of £1000 billion, equivalent to approximately 55% of Gross Domestic Product (GDP), and women carried out an overall average of 60% more unpaid work than men. The only area where men put in more unpaid work hours than women was in the category of ‘non-leisure travel’. While the numbers of men and women are roughly equal, women did more unpaid work than men in every age group, from the 25 and under age category to the 56 and over age category. The figures also revealed that people on lower incomes tended to carry out on average more unpaid work than other income brackets.

    11. Assuming that the different types of work are valued equally, what was the total value of unpaid work done by women in the UK in 2015?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    We are told in the question that the total value for unpaid work was £1,000 billion. We know from table 1 that the total hours per week of unpaid work by both men and women was 41.53 hours. Women worked 25.54 hours’ worth of this. No need to scale this up for the whole as we’re simply searching for the proportion to apply to the total value, which is 25.54/41.53 = approx. 0.615. Multiplying this by £1,000 billion we see the value of women’s unpaid labour was approximately £614.97 billion, or C.

    Post Comment

    Any railway customer who has to wait for a train that is delayed by more than 20 minutes is entitled to a refund of $6. Anyone who has to wait for a train that is delayed by more than 10 minutes but less than 20 minutes is entitled to a refund of $4.

    The table below shows the scheduled arrival time and the actual arrival time for 10 customers’ trains.

    All of the customers who were entitled to a refund did receive the refund from the railway company.

    12. How much money did the railway company have to pay out in total to these customers?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    Save yourself confusion and do this in steps: Find out who needed a refund, find out how much each is owed, total it up. 

    1. Customers 3, 4, 9 and 10 all needed a refund.
    2. Customers 3, 9 and 10 all waited more than 20 minutes so need a $6 refund. Customer 4 waited more than 10 so needs a $4 refund. 
    3. Therefore, the railway needs to pay out $22
    Post Comment

    While well-intentioned, the campaign to ban tackling in school rugby constitutes an overreaction. Such a ban could lead to unintended negative consequences for the young people involved in the sport, and it must not be implemented. Many parents and others are very concerned about the potential for rugby tackling to cause head and spinal cord injuries.

    However, the possibility of injury is present in any sport, and the health risks associated with physical inactivity are widely understood. Also, as is the case with boxing or any other contact sport, full-contact rugby enables players to channel aggression in a positive, controlled way. It is surely better to let young people show aggression through rugby than to wait for violent behaviour to happen impulsively.

    1. It is unfeasible for schools to replace rugby with other activities that can channel aggression in a controlled manner.

    2. Aggression is a natural or unavoidable feature of many young people’s behaviour.

    3. It is impossible to sustain head or spinal cord injuries in other sports played at schools.

    13. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    The main conclusion of this passage is that rugby tackling should not be banned as the positives of the sport outweigh the negatives.

    Statement 1 supports this argument because it states that any other sport that could help young people channel aggression, may not be introduced to schools, as it is not feasible. Therefore, it supports keeping rugby as a sport within schools as a way for young people to channel their aggression in a positive and controlled manner.

    Statement 2 is correct because if aggression is accepted as natural, there needs to be a method of channelling this behaviour in a positive way. Rugby is stated to do this in the passage.

    Statement 3 weakens the argument as it favours other sports, as they cannot cause head or spinal cord injuries.

    Post Comment

    Among a group of 6 children, 2 belong to a football team.

    Philip says it is Roger and Qayla.

    Qayla says it is Philip and Roger.

    Roger says it is Qayla and Sam.

    Sam says it is Trista and Roger.

    Trista says it is Ursula and Sam.

    Ursula refuses to say anything.

    Four of the children correctly named one person and lied about the other. One person lied about both. The sixth person, Ursula, said nothing.

    14. Which two children belong to the football team?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is F.

    This question is tricky but start with what you know. There are 6 children, but in fact only 5 are saying anything at all. If 4 of them are truthful about at least one member, then it makes sense that any names mentioned very often are likely to be on the team. Roger is mentioned 3 times, so it is safe to assume that he is on the team. With this assumption in mind, then none of Qayla, Philip and Trista can also be on the team as each is mentioned alongside Roger and no-one correctly named both children on the team. As Philip, Qayla and Sam all named Roger, we know that one of Roger and Trista has correctly named one team member and one has correctly named no team members. If Sam were on the team, both would have correctly named one member which is not possible. We have already ruled out Qayla, so the answer must be Ursula. This leaves Roger and Ursula as the correct answer. 

    Top Tip!
    On questions with a lot of information, it’s often best to start with the category or individual which is named most often.

    Post Comment

    The BBC’s codes and guidelines have maintained its reputation for broadcasting news that is representative of different political opinions. These include the political Right’s promotion of the freedom and prosperity of business, in contrast to the Left’s view that businesses should be regulated to serve everybody’s interests. There are no similar requirements for newspapers. The range of views on offer in the press derives largely from the extent of the pluralism of ownership and, in turn, the degree to which owners seek to influence editorial direction. Newspaper ownership in Britain is concentrated in the hands of a few businessmen. Newspapers are rarely profitable, but provide power, influence and easy access to the establishment, which their owners can exploit to secure economic conditions favourable to their businesses. Owners can directly dictate the newspaper’s position on a particular issue, and staff can be appointed for, or censored by, the political ethos of the organisation.

    1. The Right promotes the interests of newspaper owners in Britain.

    2. The political opinion presented in the British press is biased in favour of the Right.

    15. Which of the following can be concluded from the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Statement 1 here is correct because given that the Right promotes freedom and prosperity of businesses, newspaper owners can take advantage of this to ‘secure economic conditions favourable to their businesses.’ Therefore statement 1 is correct because the Right promotes/supports the interests of small businesses such as newspapers and therefore their own interests.

    Statement 2 is incorrect because the British press does not necessarily favour the Right just because the Right favours providing an environment whereby businesses such as newspapers can support their own interests.

    Post Comment

    In a paint factory, large and small containers must be filled with paint. Two pumps are available. The fast pump can deliver paint at 12 litres per minute, and the slow pump can deliver paint at 6 litres per minute.

    Kadu begins to use one of the pumps to fill a large container and the other pump to fill a small container. He starts filling the containers at the same time, and, when the small container is half full, he swaps each container to the other pump. Both containers become full at the same time.

    16. How much bigger is a large container than a small container?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    This question appears difficult at first, but it’s actually about being bold with decisions. We haven’t been given any values for the containers, so we can assign some and solve algebraically. If we make our lives easy and say that the volume of the small container is 12 litres, then the slow pump would take exactly a minute to half fill it. Moving it to the fast pump would take a further half a minute. So, a minute and a half in total would be taken.

    Now, we assign this logic to the large container. It will get 1 minute with the fast pump (and 12 litres) before being switched to the slow pump for half a minute (getting 3 litres). Therefore, the large container has a volume of 15 litres. This makes the large container 3 litres, or 25% bigger than the small one.

    Post Comment

    It is not unusual for a member of the British Royal Family to serve as an officer in the armed forces, and even, on occasion, to see active service. It happened quite recently when Prince Harry was posted to a war zone, raising questions about the heightened risk that such a high profile target would face, and possibly deflect onto others. At first the prince’s location was a well-kept secret, but in due course it became public knowledge, rightly prompting calls in parliament and the media for his recall. If the prince’s whereabouts had remained a secret, the level of risk could have been managed. But since his whereabouts were not a secret, risk management was not possible.

    17. Which one of the following commits the same logical flaw as the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The argument says that if the Prince’s whereabouts had been secret, the level of risk could have been managed. The flaw here is that the argument assumes that just because this is true, the inverse is false. The only option in the answers that follows the same flaw as the argument is A.

    Post Comment

    Three-year old Arthur has a junior skittles set. It contains four red skittles, four yellow skittles, three balls and a felt mat. The mat is shown below.

    Six of the eight skittles are placed on the spots (there are two extra in the set in case of loss or damage). The balls must then be bowled from behind the line at the other end of the mat.

    18. How many different arrangements of red and yellow skittles are possible on the six circles on the mat?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is E.

    We need to know firstly the colour combinations, then the position combinations for each possible colour combination. The possible colour combinations with 4 of each colour are 3 red and 3 yellow, 2 red and 4 yellow or 2 yellow and 4 red. 

    Now, we need to think about the probability in factorials. With 3 red and 3 yellow skittles, at first, there are 6 possible places for our first red skittle. After placing it, there are 5 possible places for the first yellow skittle. This continues with a subsequent 4 possible places for the next red skittle and so on, giving us the probability calculation of 6 x 5 x 4 x 3 x 2 x 1 (or 6 factorial, denoted 6!) for possible positions. However, we do not care about the order of the skittles relative to one another so we need to reduce our possible combinations by how many ways our skittles could be in order. Since there are 3 x 2 x 1 (3!) ways in which we can arrange 3 red skittles in 3 spaces, and 3 x 2 x 1 (3!) ways in which we can arrange 3 yellow skittles in 3 spaces, we calculate 6!/(3! x 3!) = 20 possible combinations. 

    Our other possible combinations are the same thing with different colours; 2 red and 4 yellow/2 yellow and 4 red so it will be the same calculation for each. Thus, we can just do the calculation and multiply by 2. There are still 6! possible ways to organise the skittles overall, but this time there are 4! ways to organise the red, and 2! to organise the yellow. Therefore, our calculation is now 6!/(4! x 2!) = 15 arrangements. This multiplied by 2 gives 30 arrangements. There are therefore 50 possible total arrangements.

    Post Comment

    Between 1 January 1960 and 31 December 2015, there were 1104 fatal passenger aircraft crashes for which a definitive cause was known (see Table 1). The crashes included are those which had ten or more passengers on board and which resulted in at least one fatality. Military and private aircraft and helicopters were excluded. Where there were multiple causes, the most prominent cause was recorded. The category of pilot error includes those crashes in which weather or a mechanical fault was a strong contributing factor to the pilot error.

    Table 1 Number of crashes in each category of primary cause, 1960 to 2015

    Table 2 gives a breakdown of fatal accidents and onboard fatalities by phase of flight over the same period.

    Table 2 Fatal crashes and onboard fatalities by phase of flight, 1960 to 2015

    * Percentage of flight time estimated for a 1.5 hour flight

    Since 1997, the average number of airliner crashes per year has shown a steady and  persistent decline, thanks to the continuing efforts of international aviation organisations and the stringent safety standards now in place in the aviation industry. Recent figures reveal that 2016 was the second safest year on record. There were 17 fatal crashes, resulting in 325 deaths, down from 560 in 2015. Given that a total of around 3.5 billion air passengers flew during 2016, that’s just one death per 10.8 million travellers.

    Only one year saw fewer deaths – 2013, with 265. But with 3.05 billion passengers boarding a plane that year, that amounts to a very similar number of deaths per passenger (one per 11.5 million). When one discounts sabotage, 2015 was actually the safest year on record. Two crashes, deliberately caused, accounted for the majority of fatalities that year. So it is easy to see that air travel has never been safer.

    19. In which phase of flight are most fatalities caused per crash?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    For this calculation, we want highest concentration of onboard fatalities in the number of fatal crashes in each phase of flight; in other words, a high ratio of fatal crashes : onboard fatalities. We should aim to calculate as few ratios as possible by eyeballing, and we see that take off/initial climb and cruise have the apparent largest ratios, so we can just calculate these. We see that cruise has a ratio of 1:2, whereas take-off and climb has a ratio of 1:1.5, therefore A is the answer here.

    Post Comment

    Between 1 January 1960 and 31 December 2015, there were 1104 fatal passenger aircraft crashes for which a definitive cause was known (see Table 1). The crashes included are those which had ten or more passengers on board and which resulted in at least one fatality. Military and private aircraft and helicopters were excluded. Where there were multiple causes, the most prominent cause was recorded. The category of pilot error includes those crashes in which weather or a mechanical fault was a strong contributing factor to the pilot error.

    Table 1 Number of crashes in each category of primary cause, 1960 to 2015

    Table 2 gives a breakdown of fatal accidents and onboard fatalities by phase of flight over the same period.

    Table 2 Fatal crashes and onboard fatalities by phase of flight, 1960 to 2015

    * Percentage of flight time estimated for a 1.5 hour flight

    Since 1997, the average number of airliner crashes per year has shown a steady and  persistent decline, thanks to the continuing efforts of international aviation organisations and the stringent safety standards now in place in the aviation industry. Recent figures reveal that 2016 was the second safest year on record. There were 17 fatal crashes, resulting in 325 deaths, down from 560 in 2015. Given that a total of around 3.5 billion air passengers flew during 2016, that’s just one death per 10.8 million travellers.

    Only one year saw fewer deaths – 2013, with 265. But with 3.05 billion passengers boarding a plane that year, that amounts to a very similar number of deaths per passenger (one per 11.5 million). When one discounts sabotage, 2015 was actually the safest year on record. Two crashes, deliberately caused, accounted for the majority of fatalities that year. So it is easy to see that air travel has never been safer.

    20. What is the average time taken by an aircraft to get from the start of its descent (at cruising altitude) to landing on the runway?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    We are told that the total flight time, or exposure, is equal to a 1.5-hour flight. Therefore, from cruising altitude to landing is 27% total exposure. This is equal to 0.27 x 90 minutes = 24 minutes.

    Post Comment

    Between 1 January 1960 and 31 December 2015, there were 1104 fatal passenger aircraft crashes for which a definitive cause was known (see Table 1). The crashes included are those which had ten or more passengers on board and which resulted in at least one fatality. Military and private aircraft and helicopters were excluded. Where there were multiple causes, the most prominent cause was recorded. The category of pilot error includes those crashes in which weather or a mechanical fault was a strong contributing factor to the pilot error.

    Table 1 Number of crashes in each category of primary cause, 1960 to 2015

    Table 2 gives a breakdown of fatal accidents and onboard fatalities by phase of flight over the same period.

    Table 2 Fatal crashes and onboard fatalities by phase of flight, 1960 to 2015

    * Percentage of flight time estimated for a 1.5 hour flight

    Since 1997, the average number of airliner crashes per year has shown a steady and  persistent decline, thanks to the continuing efforts of international aviation organisations and the stringent safety standards now in place in the aviation industry. Recent figures reveal that 2016 was the second safest year on record. There were 17 fatal crashes, resulting in 325 deaths, down from 560 in 2015. Given that a total of around 3.5 billion air passengers flew during 2016, that’s just one death per 10.8 million travellers.

    Only one year saw fewer deaths – 2013, with 265. But with 3.05 billion passengers boarding a plane that year, that amounts to a very similar number of deaths per passenger (one per 11.5 million). When one discounts sabotage, 2015 was actually the safest year on record. Two crashes, deliberately caused, accounted for the majority of fatalities that year. So it is easy to see that air travel has never been safer.

    For the most part, the proportions of crashes that were attributable to each category of primary cause have remained broadly constant over the period since 1960.

    21. Which one of the following represents the clearest exception to this observation?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    We are looking for the exception to the statement in the question stem. 

    A is untrue because pilot error was actually higher in the 1960s than the 1990s. 

    B is untrue, but deceptive. It is true that the absolute number of crashes due to mechanical failure was lower in the 2010s, however the overall number of crashes was also proportionally lower so ultimately the difference was negligible. 

    C is, again, deceptive but untrue. The absolute value of crashes due to bad weather has, on the whole, decreased, however the values for number of actual crashes has also decreased at a similar proportional rate.

    D is the true statement because the number of crashes due to sabotage was lower in the 1960s than the 70s and 80s, but the total number of crashes was similar. Therefore, there was a proportionally unusually low rate.

    E is clearly incorrect – both proportionally and numerically the number of crashes due to other causes has decreased.

    Post Comment

    Between 1 January 1960 and 31 December 2015, there were 1104 fatal passenger aircraft crashes for which a definitive cause was known (see Table 1). The crashes included are those which had ten or more passengers on board and which resulted in at least one fatality. Military and private aircraft and helicopters were excluded. Where there were multiple causes, the most prominent cause was recorded. The category of pilot error includes those crashes in which weather or a mechanical fault was a strong contributing factor to the pilot error.

    Table 1 Number of crashes in each category of primary cause, 1960 to 2015

    Table 2 gives a breakdown of fatal accidents and onboard fatalities by phase of flight over the same period.

    Table 2 Fatal crashes and onboard fatalities by phase of flight, 1960 to 2015

    * Percentage of flight time estimated for a 1.5 hour flight

    Since 1997, the average number of airliner crashes per year has shown a steady and  persistent decline, thanks to the continuing efforts of international aviation organisations and the stringent safety standards now in place in the aviation industry. Recent figures reveal that 2016 was the second safest year on record. There were 17 fatal crashes, resulting in 325 deaths, down from 560 in 2015. Given that a total of around 3.5 billion air passengers flew during 2016, that’s just one death per 10.8 million travellers.

    Only one year saw fewer deaths – 2013, with 265. But with 3.05 billion passengers boarding a plane that year, that amounts to a very similar number of deaths per passenger (one per 11.5 million). When one discounts sabotage, 2015 was actually the safest year on record. Two crashes, deliberately caused, accounted for the majority of fatalities that year. So it is easy to see that air travel has never been safer.

    22. Which one of the following is assumed by the reasoning in the final paragraph?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    The thrust of the argument of the final paragraph is that air travel has never been safer, supported by safety data from 2015. However, when considering the 2015 data, the paragraph discounts sabotage before making its point about improved safety. Therefore, it must have assumed that sabotage does not make air travel less safe for whatever reason. The other statements are not assumptions underlying the point of this final paragraph. 

    Top tip!

    Notice that most of the statements here talk about sabotage in one way or another. Therefore, you can be very suspicious of the section of the final paragraph which refers to sabotage and think carefully about the assumptions which underlie it.

    Post Comment

    I use a 4-digit PIN with my bank cards. Each digit can be any digit between 1 and 9. I have set the code so that:

    • the first and second digits are consecutive (subtracting the first from the second digit gives 1).

    • the third and fourth digits are consecutive (subtracting the third from the fourth digit gives 1).

    • the first and fourth digits add together to give the same value as the second and third digits multiplied together.

    23. What is the last (fourth) digit of my PIN?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    Questions like this should prompt you to think algebraically and construct an equation. The PIN is two pairs of consecutive numbers, so assign the first digit x and the third y

    1. The pin, then, is x, x+1, y, y+1
    2. The rules tell us that the first and fourth digits added together give us the second and third multiplied – therefore x + (y + 1) = (x + 1)y.
    3. Simplified: x + y + 1 = xy + y THEREFORE x + 1 = xy
      1. The above tells us that the second digit (x + 1) is equal to the first and third numbers multiplied together (xy) 
    4. This means that the first number can only be 1; if it were anything else there would be no possible way to have the second digit be the sum of the first and the third. The second digit must therefore be 2, as must the third, and the fourth must be 3. 
    5. The code is 1,2,2,3
    Post Comment

    Domestic cats are popular pets worldwide, and have the potential to significantly affect prey species in both rural and urban areas. Several studies have shown that cats living on the outskirts of urban areas and those living in rural areas bring home more prey, and a greater variety of prey, than cats living in more urbanised environments. However, not all studies have found detrimental effects of cat predation on wildlife. A study in Canberra, Australia, found that domestic cats caught and killed so-called ‘invasive’ species of rodents and birds – those that are non-native to the ecosystem and whose presence causes or is likely to cause harm. Thus, keeping domestic cats should be encouraged as it has a positive effect on native wildlife.

    24. Which one of the following best expresses the flaw in the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    P1: Cats living on the outskirts of urban areas and those living in rural areas bring home more prey, and a greater variety of prey, than cats living in more urbanised environments.

    P2: In Canberra domestic cats caught and killed so-called ‘invasive’ species of rodents and birds

    C1: Keeping domestic cats should be encouraged as it has a positive effect on native wildlife

    The main gap between P2 and C1 is that P2 is specific to Canberra and C1 is a general statement about all domestic cats and the environment. This is a flaw because the passage assumes that what happens in Canberra will happen elsewhere.

    Post Comment

    Simone has won $200 in a competition and she decides to share the money between five different charities that she supports. No charity will receive more than $100 and each charity will receive a whole number of dollars. Each one of the charities will receive a different amount and at least $10. Simone will give the second highest amount of money to a local charity STARS.

    25. What is the least amount that Simone might give to STARS?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    For Simone to give the least possible money to STARS, she must spend the maximum on the other charities. An easy first step then is to give $100 to one of the charities, leaving $100 between the other 4. If each could receive the same, they would receive $25 each but this is not within the rules. Therefore, the other 3 charities could each receive $24, $25 and $26 leaving $27 as the lowest possible value for STARS.

    Post Comment
    Vector Medicmind Tutor

    Fri, 29 Oct 2021 21:52:09

    The final statement is incorrect as the total sum is $202. The final right answer is 100, 27,26,24,23.

    It is known that one of the factors that can promote better health in infants is the good health of the mother. What is less well-known is that there are real dangers presented by bottle-feeding, a practice that has become very popular in developing countries. Firstly, formula milk lacks the protective properties (antibodies, enzymes, long chain fatty acids and hormones) of breast milk. Secondly, there is the danger of contamination in situations where hygiene is poorly understood or difficult to achieve. Thirdly, formula milk may be over-diluted as a way of saving on cost.

    Companies selling formula milk have led aggressive advertising campaigns to promote bottle-feeding; as a result, many governments in the developing world have introduced limits on or banned such marketing. More action is urgently needed throughout the developing world if we are to help women and avoid infant ill health and mortality. One estimate put the number of infant deaths in the developing world caused by bottle-feeding at 13% of all deaths.

    26. Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    The main conclusion of the passage is that bottle feeding should be more heavily controlled as it is associated with poor infant health and can increase infant mortality in developing countries. Breast- feeding should be encouraged as breast milk has ‘protective properties (antibodies, enzymes, long chain fatty acids and hormones). Additionally, women who are in better health can improve their infants health.

    Statement D is therefore correct because if breastfeeding has benefits for both the mother and for the child, a mother’s improved health can have further positive effects on an infants health.

    Statement A cannot be assumed to be correct as the passage only mentions the popularity of bottled milk in developed countries and not its use in developed countries.

    Statement B is irrelevant as it is not mentioned.

    Statement C is incorrect as there is no mention of campaigns used to deter the use of bottled milk.

    Post Comment

    The prices of pizzas at Paul’s are shown in the following table.

    Paul decided to have a promotion with two special discounts available on the total cost of pizzas, including any toppings:

    • buy one pizza, get any other one for half price

    • buy any four pizzas, get another one free

    Paul had intended that the discount would apply to the cheapest pizza in each case, but forgot to include this wording on the promotional material. He therefore had to allow customers to decide which pizzas would have the discount applied.

    Seven friends ordered the following pizzas:

    27. What was the least possible cost of their pizza order?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    The cheapest way for these friends to order pizza will be to get the most expensive pizzas free or discounted and pay in full for the cheapest.

    The cheapest way on the whole is to use the buy four get one free and then buy one get one half price. First, quickly calculate the cost of all the pizzas.

    1. India – $5, James and Lance – $8, Keira – $6, Maddie – $12, Nellie – $9, Ollie – $10. 
    2. Maddie’s is the most expensive so should be free in the buy four get one free – so the value of this part will come to
      1. $5 + $6 + $8 + $8 = $27
    3. Ollie’s is the next most expensive so should be half price in this section
      1. $9 + (0.5 x $10) = $14
    4. The total value is $41
    Post Comment

    A study of routine health screening programmes found no consistent evidence that they improved health or reduced death rates and concluded that ‘while we cannot be certain that general health checks lead to benefit, we know that all medical interventions can lead to harm’. Possible harms include overtreatment due to false positive results. In routine screening for breast cancer, for example, tumours may be detected leading to major surgery when those tumours may never – if left alone – have developed into anything harmful. Furthermore, people who are better off or healthier are more likely to participate in routine screening, so the screening may not reach those who need it most. This is not to imply that the individual components of health checks are ineffective or to discount the value of targeted screening programmes in geographical areas where levels of disease are more prevalent.

    28. Which one of the following can be drawn as a conclusion from the above passage?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Statement D is correct here because the final sentence summarises how individual components of health checks may be effective in areas where certain diseases are more prevalent. Statement D summarises this by saying that targeted screening programmes (i.e. in a certain geographical area) may be more effective than universal programmes.

    Statement A is incorrect because the paragraph only states that people who are better off or healthier receive such screening tests. It fails to mention that people who are better off are necessarily leading healthier lifestyles.

    Statement B is incorrect because the paragraph is trying to explain that such routine screening programmes have been commonly used in the past and that targeted screening programmes may be more useful, rather than discussing whether they were over or underestimated.

    Statement C is incorrect because the paragraph does not mention how individuals receiving breast cancer screening tests are or are not being informed of the possibility of ‘false positive’ results.

    Post Comment

    Most board games that require two dice are supplied with two identical dice, both having 1 to 6 spots on their faces, with the spots on opposite faces adding up to 7.

    The two dice supplied with one of my board games are different. One has 0 to 5 spots on its faces, with the spots on opposite faces adding up to 5, while the other one has 2 to 7 spots on its faces, with the spots on opposite faces adding up to 9.

    This is a view of both dice together.

    29. Which one of the following could be another view of one of the dice?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is C.

    This question requires some careful visualisation. Start by working out which die is which. Because the die on the right has the 5 and the 4 on adjacent faces, it cannot be the 2-7 because opposite faces must add up to 9. Therefore, the right side is the 0-5 and the left the 2-7. The natural place to start is with dice A and D, because these dice have 6 spots on one of their sides so must be 2-7 dice. 

    On die A, 6 and 3 are adjacent so this cannot be the answer. 

    Die B must be a 2-7 die because 2 and 3 are adjacent. 

    Looking at the diagonal positioning of the 2 face, we see that one spot is on a corner next to a 3 and a 5. On die B, the spot of the 2 face is on a corner next to a 3 and a 6, so this cannot be right.  

    Die D must also be a 2-7, because there is a 6 face. One of the spots of the 2 face is on a corner next to a 5 face and a 3 face – therefore this die cannot be right because the spot is next to a 5 and a 6.

    Die E also requires some visualisation. It is a 0-5 die since sides 4 and 5 are adjacent. If we place the 5 in the position of our die on top, then the top face must either be a 3 or a 2, and it is a 4 on our die. 

    Die C is the correct answer. It is easy to see that it is a 0-5 die because it has a face with 1 spot. Our 0-5 dice on the right has 2 faces adjacent to the 5 face which we cannot see, but we know must be 3 and 1. This is the case in C, so it is a possible arrangement.

    Top tip!
    If you have a gift for visualisation, always use it for this type of question. If, however, you are like the author of this resource and really struggle, come up with creative ways to circumvent it. Thinking about the orientation of the diagonal dots representing the number 2 here is really useful as you can see the corners with which the dots interface and make deductions based on this.

    Post Comment

    Biofuels are an energy source derived mainly from plants and widely thought to offer a better alternative to petroleum and other fossil fuels. In particular, when biofuels are burned to generate electricity or power a car, they produce lower emissions of carbon dioxide, the gas largely responsible for human-caused climate change. Concerns do exist about other consequences of switching to biofuels. For instance, using biofuels to meet the energy needs of even a few industrialised nations would likely require converting large amounts of forest and land now utilised for growing food to the production of crops only suitable for manufacturing biofuels. Such land use change could harm biodiversity and also reduce food availability for some of the world’s poorest people. Yet the planet-wide threat posed by climate change is so significant that a transition from fossil fuels to biofuels must be pursued.

    1. Longer growing seasons and other likely impacts of climate change will lead to increased food harvests in some areas.

    2. Technology exists to manufacture biofuels cheaply and efficiently from waste products associated with existing food production arrangements.

    30. Which of the following, if true, would weaken the main conclusion of the above argument?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    The passage concludes that biofuels should largely replace fossil fuels as a source of energy, as they emit lower carbon dioxide levels. However, they do pose threats to biodiversity and food availability in certain parts of the world. The passage ultimately concludes that the benefit of using biofuels outweighs the negative aspects.

    Statements 1 and 2 both strengthen the argument and are therefore incorrect.

    Statement 1 strengthens the argument as climate change can lead to longer harvesting seasons and therefore implying that food shortages may not be an issue. Therefore supporting that the benefits of biofuels outweigh the negatives.

    Statement 2 strengthens the argument as it explains that biofuels could be produced from waste products rather than through deforestation. This also helps to support the argument that the benefits outweigh the negatives.

    Post Comment

    Bruno was awarded 48 marks out of 80 for his coursework project. The maximum mark available for each of the four sections: research, design, construction and evaluation, was 20. The marks for all sections were expressed in whole numbers.

    The smallest difference between the marks awarded to any two of Bruno’s sections was 2. This was between design and construction, which were his two best sections. The largest difference was 11, between design and evaluation.

    31. How many marks was Bruno’s research section awarded?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Once again, we can easily construct this algebraically. 

    1. r+d+d-2+d-11 = 48
    2. 48 = r+3d-13
    3. 61 = 3d+r

    Now, we know that 61-r must be divisible by 3 as d can only be a whole number. This only leaves A and D as possible answers as these would give 61 – r = 51 and 48 respectively, both multiples of 3. If the answer was D, then the split would be r=13, d=16, c=14 and e=5. In this case, the smallest difference is between research and construction at 1, not 2, so it does not fit the rules. If the answer was A then the split would be r=10, d=17, c=15 and e=6. In this case, the smallest difference is between design at construction at 2 as described in the question. Therefore, A is the correct answer.

    Top Tip!
    Work towards being smooth rather than fast as a goal for maths like this. None of the calculations or algebra are particularly difficult, but it can be hard to work incredibly quickly and remember the parameters you have to work within. Working a little more slowly and smoothly will probably make you faster on the whole.

    Post Comment

    All proteins are composed entirely of amino acids. Determining the amino acid mixture that is most desirable in a protein food is an issue of debate. Part of the difficulty in determining our need for individual amino acids involves the interconversion of amino acids that is constantly taking place in our body. Researchers simplify amino acid recommendations by dividing the twenty amino acids into three basic categories: dispensable, indispensable, and conditionally indispensable. The five dispensable amino acids are those that our bodies are able to make under all circumstances; the nine indispensable amino acids can never be made by our body and must be consumed through diet; the six conditionally indispensable amino acids can be made by our body under many circumstances but, under other circumstances, cannot be made in a sufficiently reliable way to meet our needs.

    Our bodies can take some amino acids and convert them into others, for example phenylalanine into tyrosine and methionine into cysteine. However, these conversions rely on the presence of other molecules, and the ability of our bodies to create and transform amino acids can (as with the examples cited) change at different stages of life and in different states of health.

    The protein content of human breast milk falls from 2.5% immediately after giving birth to 1% eight weeks after birth, but the amino acid mix of the protein content remains the same and has always been regarded as the ideal for infants. For older humans, however, protein quality is provided through a variety of foods, which makes it more difficult to determine the most desirable mixture of amino acids. One proposal for a desirable mixture of amino acids for adults is the mixture found in a hen’s egg, based on a recommended daily protein intake of 0.8 g per kilogram of body weight.

    Table 1 shows the number of milligrams of each amino acid per gram of protein consumed for human milk and a hen’s egg.

    An alternative proposal, presented in Table 2, recommends levels for daily amino acid intake based upon a person’s age, sex and body weight (in mg / kg of body weight per day).

    * not established

    Abbreviations: His – histidine, Iso – isoleucine, Leu – leucine, Lys – lysine, Cys+Met – total of cysteine and methionine, Phe+Tyr – total of phenylalanine and tyrosine, Thr – threonine,

    Try – Tryptophan, Val – valine.

    32. Based on the information provided, which of the following can be inferred as being ‘conditionally indispensable’ amino acids?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is D.

    Start by finding your keyword – conditionally indispensable. This is defined as amino acids which ‘can be made by our body under many circumstances but, under other circumstances, cannot be made in a sufficiently reliable way to meet our needs.’ In the second paragraph, we are told that tyrosine and cysteine can be converted from other amino acids, dependent on the presence of other molecules which meets our definition.

    Post Comment

    All proteins are composed entirely of amino acids. Determining the amino acid mixture that is most desirable in a protein food is an issue of debate. Part of the difficulty in determining our need for individual amino acids involves the interconversion of amino acids that is constantly taking place in our body. Researchers simplify amino acid recommendations by dividing the twenty amino acids into three basic categories: dispensable, indispensable, and conditionally indispensable. The five dispensable amino acids are those that our bodies are able to make under all circumstances; the nine indispensable amino acids can never be made by our body and must be consumed through diet; the six conditionally indispensable amino acids can be made by our body under many circumstances but, under other circumstances, cannot be made in a sufficiently reliable way to meet our needs.

    Our bodies can take some amino acids and convert them into others, for example phenylalanine into tyrosine and methionine into cysteine. However, these conversions rely on the presence of other molecules, and the ability of our bodies to create and transform amino acids can (as with the examples cited) change at different stages of life and in different states of health.

    The protein content of human breast milk falls from 2.5% immediately after giving birth to 1% eight weeks after birth, but the amino acid mix of the protein content remains the same and has always been regarded as the ideal for infants. For older humans, however, protein quality is provided through a variety of foods, which makes it more difficult to determine the most desirable mixture of amino acids. One proposal for a desirable mixture of amino acids for adults is the mixture found in a hen’s egg, based on a recommended daily protein intake of 0.8 g per kilogram of body weight.

    Table 1 shows the number of milligrams of each amino acid per gram of protein consumed for human milk and a hen’s egg.

    An alternative proposal, presented in Table 2, recommends levels for daily amino acid intake based upon a person’s age, sex and body weight (in mg / kg of body weight per day).

    * not established

    Abbreviations: His – histidine, Iso – isoleucine, Leu – leucine, Lys – lysine, Cys+Met – total of cysteine and methionine, Phe+Tyr – total of phenylalanine and tyrosine, Thr – threonine,

    Try – Tryptophan, Val – valine.

    33. How much more tryptophan would be recommended for a 20-year-old man weighing 70 kg by the proposed daily desired intake from Table 2 compared to Table 1?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    By table 1, a 70kg man should consume amino acids equivalent roughly to the ratios in a hen’s egg, which is 0.8mg x 70 x 4 = 224mg.

    According to table 2, the man should eat 70 x 5mg = 350mg of tryptophan.

    The difference is 126mg, or B.

    Post Comment

    All proteins are composed entirely of amino acids. Determining the amino acid mixture that is most desirable in a protein food is an issue of debate. Part of the difficulty in determining our need for individual amino acids involves the interconversion of amino acids that is constantly taking place in our body. Researchers simplify amino acid recommendations by dividing the twenty amino acids into three basic categories: dispensable, indispensable, and conditionally indispensable. The five dispensable amino acids are those that our bodies are able to make under all circumstances; the nine indispensable amino acids can never be made by our body and must be consumed through diet; the six conditionally indispensable amino acids can be made by our body under many circumstances but, under other circumstances, cannot be made in a sufficiently reliable way to meet our needs.

    Our bodies can take some amino acids and convert them into others, for example phenylalanine into tyrosine and methionine into cysteine. However, these conversions rely on the presence of other molecules, and the ability of our bodies to create and transform amino acids can (as with the examples cited) change at different stages of life and in different states of health.

    The protein content of human breast milk falls from 2.5% immediately after giving birth to 1% eight weeks after birth, but the amino acid mix of the protein content remains the same and has always been regarded as the ideal for infants. For older humans, however, protein quality is provided through a variety of foods, which makes it more difficult to determine the most desirable mixture of amino acids. One proposal for a desirable mixture of amino acids for adults is the mixture found in a hen’s egg, based on a recommended daily protein intake of 0.8 g per kilogram of body weight.

    Table 1 shows the number of milligrams of each amino acid per gram of protein consumed for human milk and a hen’s egg.

    An alternative proposal, presented in Table 2, recommends levels for daily amino acid intake based upon a person’s age, sex and body weight (in mg / kg of body weight per day).

    * not established

    Abbreviations: His – histidine, Iso – isoleucine, Leu – leucine, Lys – lysine, Cys+Met – total of cysteine and methionine, Phe+Tyr – total of phenylalanine and tyrosine, Thr – threonine,

    Try – Tryptophan, Val – valine.

    34. The average newborn baby consumes 560 g of breast milk a day, while the average 8-week-old baby consumes 700 g a day. What is the ratio of the average consumption of isoleucine per day between the average newborn and the average 8-week-old?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is A.

    Here, remember you need to establish the total protein content in breast milk before proceeding with your calculation. The text tells us that human milk is 2.5% protein directly after birth (for the new-born) which falls to 1% after 8 weeks. Therefore, our calculations are as follows. 

    1. Newborn: 560g x 0.025 = 14g protein
    2. 8-week-old: 700g x 0.01 = 7g protein

    Ratio: 14:7 = 2:1

    Post Comment

    All proteins are composed entirely of amino acids. Determining the amino acid mixture that is most desirable in a protein food is an issue of debate. Part of the difficulty in determining our need for individual amino acids involves the interconversion of amino acids that is constantly taking place in our body. Researchers simplify amino acid recommendations by dividing the twenty amino acids into three basic categories: dispensable, indispensable, and conditionally indispensable. The five dispensable amino acids are those that our bodies are able to make under all circumstances; the nine indispensable amino acids can never be made by our body and must be consumed through diet; the six conditionally indispensable amino acids can be made by our body under many circumstances but, under other circumstances, cannot be made in a sufficiently reliable way to meet our needs.

    Our bodies can take some amino acids and convert them into others, for example phenylalanine into tyrosine and methionine into cysteine. However, these conversions rely on the presence of other molecules, and the ability of our bodies to create and transform amino acids can (as with the examples cited) change at different stages of life and in different states of health.

    The protein content of human breast milk falls from 2.5% immediately after giving birth to 1% eight weeks after birth, but the amino acid mix of the protein content remains the same and has always been regarded as the ideal for infants. For older humans, however, protein quality is provided through a variety of foods, which makes it more difficult to determine the most desirable mixture of amino acids. One proposal for a desirable mixture of amino acids for adults is the mixture found in a hen’s egg, based on a recommended daily protein intake of 0.8 g per kilogram of body weight.

    Table 1 shows the number of milligrams of each amino acid per gram of protein consumed for human milk and a hen’s egg.

    An alternative proposal, presented in Table 2, recommends levels for daily amino acid intake based upon a person’s age, sex and body weight (in mg / kg of body weight per day).

    * not established

    Abbreviations: His – histidine, Iso – isoleucine, Leu – leucine, Lys – lysine, Cys+Met – total of cysteine and methionine, Phe+Tyr – total of phenylalanine and tyrosine, Thr – threonine,

    Try – Tryptophan, Val – valine.

    35. The requirement for histidine (based on a hen’s egg) has not been quantified beyond infancy, but an estimate has been extrapolated from the ratio of threonine requirements between infants and adults. Which one of the following would be this estimate?
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    Explanation

    The correct answer is B.

    The key here is realising the table 1 shows us the requirements for infants (as human milk values) and adults (as a hen’s egg). The ratio of infant to adult for threonine is therefore 19/44 = 0.43…

    The histidine requirements for an infant is 21mg, so we apply the ratio as 21 x 0.43 = 9.03mg, closest to 9mg. 

    Top tip!

    The close answers here should prompt you that this is a calculation, and not something it would be wise to estimate.

    Post Comment

    BMAT 2018 S1 Review Screen

    Instructions

    Below is a summary of your answers. You can review your questions in three (3) different ways.

    The buttons in the lower right-hand corner correspond to these choices:

    1. Review all of your questions and answers.
    2. Review questions that are incomplete.
    3. Review questions that are flagged for review. (Click the 'flag' icon to change the flag for review status.)

    You may also click on a question number to link directly to its location in the exam.

    BMAT 2018 S1 Section

    Final Answer Review Screen

    Instructions

    This review section allows you to view the answers you made and see whether they were correct or not. Each question accessed from this screen has an 'Explain Answer' button in the top left hand side. By clicking on this you will obtain an explanation as to the correct answer.

    At the bottom of this screen you can choose to 'Review All' answers, 'Review Incorrect' answers or 'Review Flagged' answers. Alternatively you can go to specific questions by opening up any of the sub-tests below.

    BMAT 2018 S1 Section

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